Great Lakes - PGPM & PGDM 2025
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Hello, CAT 2025 aspirants! The date of the CAT 2025 test for MBA admissions from 2026-2028 is expected to be in the month of November 2025. Here, On day 48 of Careers360's 60-day CAT 2025 preparation guide series, We are here with another Practice test for the CAT exam.
There are sample questions and answers for each topic and subject for your practice for an upcoming exam. To get a clear idea of the CAT exam 2025 standards, take the free online mock test and finish the full series across all three topics. The detailed solutions in this mock test are based on the topics as such covered over the past 47 days.
This free sectional mock test for CAT can help you prepare well and crack the exam in 2025.
This CAT previous year's question paper consists of three Sections:
CAT sample paper Part- A consists of 8 questions.
CAT sample paper Part- B consists of 7 questions.
CAT sample paper Part- C consists of 10 questions.
Q1. The inner circumference of a circular track is 220 m. The track is 7 cm wide. Find the diameter of the outer circle of the track.
84 m
42 m
36 m
154 m
Ans: (A)
If the radius of the inner circle is r m, then the outer radius is (r+ 7) m
2πr = 220
⇒ r = 35 m
Radius of outer circle = 35+ 7 = 42 m
Diameter of outer circle = 84 m
Q2. A swimming pool 8 metres long, 3 metres wide and 1.5 metres deep is there in a resort. Find the volume of soil removed in cubic metres to make that swimming pool.
32 m3
36 m3
50 m3
67.5 m3
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Ans: (B)
Volume of soil removed = Volume of cuboid pool
= 8x 3x 1.5
= 36 m3
Q3. The volume of a right circular cone is 25π cm3 and its height is 12 cm. Find its curved surface area.
(π√6)/2 cm2
150π/2 cm2
25π/2 cm2
(25 π√6)/2 cm2
Ans: [D]
Volume of right Circular cone = πr2h/3
πr212/3 = 25π
⇒ r = 5/2
Slant height, l = [122+(5/2)2] = (√601)/2 = 5√6 (Approx)
Curved Surface Area = πrl = π(5/2) 5√6 = (25 π√6)/2 cm2
Q4. The outer and inner diameters of a spherical hemispherical bowl are 10 cm and 9 cm respectively. Find the cost of painting the bowl @Rs 10 cm2. (Use π = 3.14)
Rs 1900
Rs 2991
Rs 2839
Rs 2396
Ans: (B)
Total Surface area of the bowl = Area of outer hemisphere + Area of inner hemisphere + Area of top surface
⇒ Total Surface area of the bowl = 2πR2 + 2πr2 + (πR2 - πr2); R is the radius of the outer sphere and r is the radius of the inner sphere.
⇒ Total Surface area of the bowl = 3πR2 + πr2 = π(3R2 + r2) = π(3R2 + r2) = 3.14(300/4 + 81/4) {since outer radius is 10/2 cm and inner radius is 9/2 cm}
⇒ Total Surface area of the bowl = 3.14(300 + 81)/4 = 1196.34/4 cm2
Cost of painting = Rs 10 x 1196.34/4 = Rs 2990.85
Q5. Two cones have their heights in the ratio of 2: 1 and the diameters of their bases are in the ratio of 2√3 :1. What will be the ratio of their volumes?
1: 24
2: 1
24: 1
1: 1
Ans: [C]
Volume of cone1/Volume of cone 2=R2/r2 X H/h; R is the radius of cone1, r is the radius of cone 2, H is the height of cone 1, h is the height of cone 2
Volume of cone1/Volume of cone2 =(23)2/12 X 2/1 = 24/1
Q6. The diagram represents the area swept by the wiper of a car in a rainy season. With the dimensions given in the figure, calculate the shaded area swept by the wiper.
12.67 cm2
20.34 cm2
14.437 cm2
28.16 cm2
Ans: [C]
Area of shaded region = 45π/360 (72 – 3.52) = 231/16 cm2 = 14.437 cm2
(Use the formula for area of sector)
Q7. If the curved surface area of a cone is twice that of another cone and the slant height of the second cone is three times that of the first, find the ratio of the area of their base.
81: 1
1: 36
36: 1
16: 1
Ans: (C)
Let radius and slant height of 1st coin be r and l respectively.
The radius of the second cone be R and the slant height will be 3l.
According to question
πrl = 2πR(3l)
⇒ r/R = 6/1
Therefore,
πr2/πR2 = 36/1
Q8. A solid cuboid of dimension (31 cm x 4 cm x 1 cm) is melted into a hollow cube from the inside of thickness 2 cm. Find the difference between the inner and outer dimensions of the cube.
2 cm
3 cm
1 cm
4 cm
Ans: [D]
Let the inner dimension of the cube be x, then the outer dimension will be (x+ 4) since the thickness is 2 cm.
Volume of cuboid = Volume of hollow cube
31 x 4 x 1 = (x+4)3 – x3 = (x+ 4- x) ((x+4)2 + x2 + x(x+4))
On simplification, we get
31 = 3x2+ 12x+ 16
⇒ 3x2+ 12x – 15 = 0
So, x = 1 cm
Outer dimension = 1+ 4 = 5 cm
Difference = 5cm – 1cm = 4cm.
The twelve teams that took part in the World Hockey Championship were divided into two pools of six teams each. In each pool, each team plays exactly one match against each of the other teams in its pool. Two points are awarded for a win, one point for a draw and zero points for a loss. At the end of the pool stage the top two teams from each pool, in terms of the points scored, would advance to the semi-finals and the winner of the semi-finals play the finals, while the losers of the semi-finals play for the third place.
Teams which finished third and fourth respectively in a pool would play with the teams ranked fourth and third respectively in the other pool. The winners of these matches would play to determine the fifth and sixth ranks, while the losers of these matches would play to determine the seventh and eighth ranks.
Similarly, teams that ranked fifth and sixth in each pool would play to determine the ranks from nine to twelve. In case two teams end up with the same number of points at the end of the pool stage, their rankings in the pool stage are determined by their net goal difference.
Note: Net goal difference = goals scored – goals conceded
Directions for Q1-Q2: Type in your answer in the input box provided below the question.
Q1. What is the minimum number of points a team should aim for, at the start of the tournament, to guarantee itself a place in the semi-finals?
Ans:
The worst-case scenario for a team can happen when the top three teams end up with the same number of points and the bottom three with points only from matches won amongst themselves. In this case, one of the top three teams would fail to advance to the semi-finals. Total points scored by the bottom three teams = 6 (points only from matches among themselves).
∴The remaining three teams can have 24/3 = 8 points each and one of them would fail to advance.
∴ A team must have at least 9 points to be sure of a place in the semi-finals. Ans: (9)
Q2. What is the minimum number of points with which a team can reach the semi-finals?
Ans:
Each team in a pool plays five matches. The total number of points for matches between the teams in a pool is 30. A team secures the minimum number of points when one of the teams secures the maximum points, and the remaining teams evenly share the remaining points such that one of the five teams, i.e., the one with the best goal difference, would advance to the semi-finals. Maximum points scored by a team = 10.
∴The points scored by all the other teams = 20/5 = 4. Ans: (4)
Directions for Q3- Q4: Type in your answer in the input box provided in the question.
Q3. The total number of matches played in the tournament is.
Ans:
The number of matches in each pool is 15. The number of matches for the classification of positions from five to eight and nine to twelve is four each. The semi-finals, finals and third-place matches together add up to four matches.
∴ The total number of matches played in the tournament = 15 + 15 + 4 + 4 + 4 = 42. Ans : (42)
Q4. If there are no draws in the championship after the pool stage, the total number of matches won by the team that won the tournament is at least
Ans:
We have seen earlier that a team with four points can advance to the semi-finals. As there are five matches a team can get up to five points without winning a single match.
∴ If a team wins just the semi-finals and the finals, it can win the tournament. Ans: (2)
Passage: Among the four members of a family - K, L, M and N, there is one couple, their son and their daughter. When asked about their relationships, the following were their replies.
K: N is my husband; M is my daughter.
L: K is my mother; M is my son.
M: K and L are of the same gender; L is my sister.
N: L is of the same gender as I; M is my son.
It was also known that only one of them always speaks the truth.
Q5. Among the four, who cannot be the truth-teller?
K
L
M
Cannot be determined
Q6. Among them, if there are two persons who always tell lies, then who always speaks the truth?
K
M
N
Cannot be determined
Q7. Among them, if there are two persons who always alternate between the truth and lies, then who speaks the truth always?
K
L
M
Cannot be determined
Solution:
Among the four members, there is one couple, their son and their daughter. The statements given by L are false because according to his statements there are three generations. So, L cannot be the truth-teller.
CASE 1: Let us assume that K is the truth-teller, then
Case (ii): Let us assume that M is the truth-teller, then the arrangement is as follows
Case (iii): Let us assume that N is the truth-teller.
Answers:-
Q5. L can never be the truth-teller. Choice (B)
Q6. In case (iii), N is the truth-teller, and K and L are the liars. Choice (C)
Q7. In case (ii), N and L are the alternators and K is the truth teller. Choice (A)
Direction (Q1-Q3): You must find the part that contains an error and then choose the sequence of correct parts (excluding the part that is grammatically and contextually incorrect). That sequence will be your answer.
Q1- It is perplexing and exasperating (A)/ that just at the moment when (B)/ you need your memory (C)/ and a nicely sense of discrimination, (D)/ these faculties take to themselves wings and fly away. (E)
ABCD
BCDE
ACDE
ABCE
None of these
Ans. Option D
Explanation: the error lies in part (D) of the sentence. To make the sentence grammatically correct replace “nice” with “nicely”. Since the word required here is an adjective to describe the quality of “sense of discrimination”, therefore option (D) becomes the most suitable.
Q2- Now he is hoping other people (A)/ will also take delight with (B)/ seeing historic photographs (C)/ of buildings which are long gone (D)/ but they have heard of or remember seeing. (E)
ABCD
ACDE
ABCE
ABDE
None of these
Ans. Option B
Explanation: the error lies in part (B) of the sentence. To make the sentence grammatically correct replace, “with” by “in” as the phrase “takes delight” always takes the preposition “in” to form a meaningful sentence. Since all the other parts of the sentence are grammatically correct, option (B) becomes the most suitable.
Q3- Could your MPs joined the protest (A)/ and submitted their resignations to the Speaker, (B)/ the Central government (C)/ would have given in to the (D)/ State’s demand for SCS by now? (E)
ABCD
ACDE
ABCE
ABDE
None of these
Ans. Option E
Explanation: The error lies in part (A) of the sentence. To make the sentence grammatically correct replace “could” with “had” as the correct grammatical syntax of the conditional clause “had…would” is “had+subject+V3” while in the main clause it is “Subject+would+have+V3”. Since all the other parts are grammatically correct, option (E) becomes the most suitable.
Direction (Q4-Q5): The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer.
Q4- Important Congress dissident source (A)/ said at one (B)/ stage that Raman Rao and Chandra Shekhar had even asked the (C)/ dissident group to suggest suitable names. (D)/ No Error (E)
A
B
C
D
E
Ans. Option A
Explanation: ‘An’ is used before ‘important’ as ‘source’ is a single countable noun and “a/an” is used before a single countable noun.
Q5- Being that he (A)/ is interested in getting himself examined (B)/ by a head specialist (C)/ we must try our best to take him to a reputed doctor. (D)/ No Error (E)
A
B
C
D
E
Ans. Option A
Explanation: Instead of ‘being that’, ‘because/ since/As’ will be used.
Q6- Rearrange the following five sentences.
Time is not a continuous container of events. Rather it is like a train wreck on a child’s play table.
The nature of this synthesis, the breaking and the joining, as an effective state seems to determine his position with the past and the present
Where the containers may be rejoined with little respect for chronology and set on their way again
Not to know modern history is to enter the exhibition at your own peril
What we see is episodes of fragments lifted out of their historic contexts and imbricated, embedded, or rendered in another time
ABCDE
DEACB
DAECB
DEABC
ABCED
Ans. Option B
Explanation: not to know modern history is to enter the exhibition at your own peril. What we see are episodes of fragments lifted out of their historic contexts and imbricated, embedded or rendered in another time. Time is not a continuous container of events. Rather it is like a train wreck on a child’s play table, where the containers may be rejoined with little respect for chronology and set on their way again. The nature of this synthesis, the breaking and the joining, as an affective state seems to determine his position with the past and the present.
Direction (Q7-Q8) Choose the correct combination that can most suitably complete the sentence without altering the meaning of the statement.
Q7- the Athenians on the whole, were peaceful and prosperous; they had____ to sit at home and think about the universe and dispute with Socrates, or to travel abroad and _____the world.
Leisure, explore
Time, ignore
Ability, suffer
Temerity, understand
Courage, see
Ans. Option A
Q8- Physicians may soon have ___ to help paralyzed people move their limbs by bypassing the ____ nerves that once controlled their muscles.
Instruments, detrimental
Ways, damaged
Reason, involuntary
Impediments, complex
Preventions, static
Ans. Option B
Direction (Q9-Q10): You have to choose the combination with the correct set of words that can coherently fit into the given sentence.
Q9: The comedian told one flat joke after another, and when the audience started booing, he _____ spat back at them, ”hey, you think this is easy-why don’t you buffoons give it shot?”
Miraculously
Pugnaciously
Antagonistically
Ardently
I.- II.
II.-III.
I.-III.
I.-IV.
III.-IV.
Ans. Option B
Explanation: pugnaciously- eager to fight or argue, antagonistically is the synonym of the pugnaciously
Booing- showing disapproval of a speaker or performer
Here the sentence conveys the argumentative tone so the correct combination of words to be used in the blank II.-III.. Hence, option B is correct.
Q10- _____ by his parents to find a job, the 30-year-old loafer instead joined a gang of itinerant musicians.
Pestered
Mustered
Badgered
Nurtured
I.-II.
II.-III.
I.-III.
I.- IV.
III.-IV.
Ans. Option C
Explanation: badgered, Pestered- repeatedly and annoyingly ask(someone) to do something.
Mustered- assemble (troops), especially for inspection or in preparation for battle.
The correct combination of words to be used in the sentence is I.-III.. Hence option C is correct.
Not really. Every year, many students score well and secure admission to top B-schools. With motivation, consistent preparation, and a structured study plan, CAT can be manageable.
The CAT 2025 exam will take place on November 24 for the batch of (2025-2027).
The practice test for day 48 includes subject- and topic-specific sample questions and answers. Candidates should complete the full series across all three subjects for a better understanding of the exam.
Odd Sentence Out, Para Jumbles, Para Completions, and Para Summary are among the remaining Verbal Ability problems.
Stay motivated, follow a structured preparation plan, practice regularly, and focus on improving your understanding of key concepts across all sections.
Hello there,
With a 65 percentile in CAT and belonging to the General category , getting admission to USMS (University School of Management Studies) can be challenging, as their cutoffs are generally higher, typically around 85-90 percentile or more. However, admission can depend on factors like:
Category-wise cutoff
: Sometimes, the cutoff for the General category can be higher, but you may still apply as there might be specific reservation relaxations or fluctuations based on the number of applicants.
Interviews and GD
: Even if you meet the minimum cutoff,
interviews and group discussions
are a mandatory part of the selection process. They assess your communication skills, leadership qualities, and overall fit for the program.
Recommendations:
Top MBA colleges based on CAT, XAT, SNAP, and NMAT scores include some of India’s best institutions. For CAT, the IIMs (Ahmedabad, Bangalore, Calcutta) and FMS Delhi are highly regarded. XAT results in prestigious colleges like XLRI Jamshedpur and XIMB. SNAP is known for Symbiosis Institutes, such as SIBM Pune and SCMHRD. NMAT scores open doors to NMIMS Mumbai, SPJIMR Mumbai, and ISB Hyderabad. Each exam has unique eligibility requirements, and their cutoffs vary, so it's important to research the specific criteria and select based on your preferences and strengths.
Hello,
Here are important points regarding your query :-
Hope it helps !
Hi,
Based on the previous year analysis, According to your CAT 2024 percentile some of the colleges in which you have chances to get a seat includes:
You can predict more colleges using the CLAT 2024 college predictor tool .
Hope this information will help you
Hello Greetings
With a CAT 2024 percentile of 68.28%, you may face a challenging time getting into IIT Delhi, as their cutoffs are typically higher. However, being an SC female student, you may be eligible for relaxation in the cutoff criteria .
To give you a better idea, here are some general CAT cutoff percentiles for IITs and other top B-schools:
- *IIT Delhi*: Typically above 90 percentile for general category students.
- *Newer IIMs*: Such as IIM Vishakapatnam, IIM Shillong, and IIM Udaipur, may have lower cutoffs, around 80-90 percentile.
- *Other top B-schools*: Like IMT Ghaziabad, XIM Bhubaneswar, and TAPMI, may also consider students with lower percentiles.
It's essential to note that CAT cutoffs can vary from year to year, and other factors like your academic background, work experience, and performance in the personal interview (PI) and written ability test (WAT) also play a significant role in the admission process.
To explore more options and predict your chances of getting into various colleges, you can use online CAT college predictor tools .
Have a great day
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Last Date of Applications- 28th January | 250+ Companies | Highest CTC 16 LPA | Average CTC 8 LPA | Ranked as Platinum Institute by AICTE for 6 years in a row | Awarded Best Business School of the Year
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