IBSAT Mock Test 2024 (Begins): ICFAI Business Studies Aptitude Test, Check Details

The dates of the IBSAT 2024 practice exams have been released. The mock test will take place on eight separate dates, from August 31 to December 7. The IBSAT National Mock Test is conducted online by ICFAI Business School. It facilitates applicants' familiarization with the actual exam format and guidelines for the IBSAT exam. This year, the top prize is Rs 1 lakh for topper, while second and third places will win Rs 50,000 and Rs 25,000, respectively. Additionally, 97 other participants will each get Rs 5,000. The BSAT 2024 exam is scheduled for December 28 and 29.

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IBSAT 2024: Mock Test | Sample Papers | Preparation Tips

IBSAT 2024: Exam Pattern | Complete Guide

This Story also Contains

1. IBSAT Mock Test 2024
2. Official IBS National Mock Test 2024
3. IBSAT National Mock Test Dates 2024
4. IBSAT Mock Test Syllabus 2024
5. Importance of IBSAT Mock Tests 2024
6. Benefits of Taking Regular Mock Tests
7. How to Effectively Attempt This Mock Test?
8. IBSAT Exam Mock Test by Careers360
9. IBSAT Mock Tests: Sample Questions
10. IBSAT preparation books
11. Other useful resources

IBSAT Mock Test 2024

IBSAT exam is conducted online as a Computer Based Test (CBT). Mock tests are an indispensable part of any exam preparation. It is essential that the candidates engage themselves in abundant IBSAT mock tests to analyze their preparation. IBSAT national-mock test will be available from 11 AM to 1 PM or 2 PM to 4 PM. To meet proctoring requirements, participants must log in at least 20 minutes before their scheduled time.

With less than six months left for the IBSAT exam, the IBSAT preparation is at an all-time high. Before venturing into the IBSAT exam preparation, it is essential to properly understand the exam pattern and syllabus. This can help the candidates structure their IBSAT preparation.

Official IBS National Mock Test 2024

ICFAI has developed an official IBSAT mock test to help applicants prepare for the 2024 exam. This practice exam covers all areas, including verbal ability, reading comprehension, data interpretation, and numerical aptitude. All IBSAT 2024 candidates are strongly encouraged to take this mock exam to assess their level of preparation.

IBSAT 2024 Mock Test - Overview

IBSAT National Mock Test Dates 2024

IBSAT national mock test will be held on three different dates. Check out the entire schedule of IBSAT NMT 2024.

IBSAT Mock Test Syllabus 2024

The syllabus of the IBSAT exam is vast and is divided into four sections, verbal ability, reading comprehension, quantitative aptitude and data Interpretation and data adequacy. The detailed syllabus of the IBSAT 20204 exam is given below:

IBSAT Exam Questions Division

The topic-wise question division can help the candidates understand the weightage of each topic asked in the IBSAT exam and therefore will be helpful in understanding the topics that the candidates must target to achieve the maximum IBSAT score. Given below is the topicwise question division of the IBSAT exam.

Importance of IBSAT Mock Tests 2024

Often at times, the candidates overlook the importance of mock tests and conclude their exam preparation after completing the syllabus. This is a wrong approach and must be scrapped. The mock tests are of pivotal importance to the candidates. The IBSAT exam is also no exception.

Benefits of Taking Regular Mock Tests

Familiarity with Exam Pattern: IBSAT Mock tests help you get used to the format and structure of the IBSAT exam, so you know what to expect on the actual test day.

Time Management: Practicing under timed conditions allows you to develop strategies for managing your time effectively during the exam, ensuring you can complete all sections. This is one of the major advantages of taking mock tests of the IBSAT exam.

Identifying Weak Areas: Regular IBSATmock tests highlight your strengths and weaknesses, helping you focus on areas that need improvement.

Building Speed and Accuracy: Frequent practice of mock IBSAT tests improves your problem-solving speed and accuracy, as you become more familiar with tackling different types of questions.

Reducing Exam Anxiety: Taking IBSAT mock tests simulates the actual exam environment, helping you become more comfortable and reducing anxiety on the test day.

Analysing Your Performance: After each mock test, analyzing your performance helps you understand your mistakes and learn from them, leading to continuous improvement.

Boosting Confidence: Consistent practice and improved performance in mock tests build your confidence, making you feel more prepared and positive about the exam.

How to Effectively Attempt This Mock Test?

While there are a lot of mock tests available for various exams, it depends on the manner in which the candidates use the mock tests that matters. They must have an understanding of how to make use of a mock test effectively to enhance their IBSAT preparation. Given below are a few tips on how candidates can make the best use of the IBSAT mock test designed by Careers360.

Set Up a Realistic Test Environment: The primary idea of the mock test is to mirror or simulate the actual exam environment with strict timings. The candidates should also keep this in mind and prepare likewise. They must ensure that they are seated comfortably and in a calm environment. Try not to take breaks and follow the same strict constraints regarding the exam timings.

Familiarize Yourself with the Test Structure: Before starting the mock test, it is advisable that the candidates understand the complete structure of the complete structure of the exam. This would ensure that the candidates are well-prepared for the final examination.

Follow a Strategy: Decide on a strategy beforehand. For example, the candidate might want to start with their strongest section to build confidence. Allocate time for each section based on the candidate’s comfort level and the number of questions.

Time Management: This is one of the most important aspects of the mock tests. The candidates must follow strict timings while attempting the test. This would help them to enhance their time management skills and complete their actual IBSAT exam on time.

Stay Calm and Focused: The candidates must remain composed throughout the test. If they feel anxious, take a few deep breaths and refocus. Concentration is key to understanding and solving the questions correctly.

Review Your Answers: The candidates must follow time management in such a way that they would be able to review their answers, especially for questions you were unsure about. Ensure that they haven’t left any questions unanswered, as IBSAT does not have negative markings.

Analyze Your Performance: After completing the mock test, the candidates must take the time to review their answers and understand their mistakes.

IBSAT Exam Mock Test by Careers360

There is no shortcut to perfection. Practice is the only way. To guide the candidate towards their IBSAT 2024 exam success, Careers360 has painstakingly designed a set of three mock tests after careful analysis of the official mock tests of the IBSAT exam and IBSAT previous years and IBSAT sample papers. The candidates are strongly encouraged to download and study these ebooks to enhance their IBSAT 2024 preparation and improve their IBSAT scores. The links to the three IBSAT mock tests curated by Careers360 are given below:

IBSAT Mock Tests: Sample Questions

The sample questions provide an idea of what the candidates can expect on the actual IBSAT exam. The IBSAT sample questions are an important part of the candidate's IBSAT preparation. Topicwise IBAT mock test sample questions are given below for the candidate's reference.

Verbal Ability

Directions: In the following questions, each word is followed by five options. Choose the option which is the closest synonym of the given words. While choosing your answer, keep in mind the finer distinctions in the meaning and usage of certain words.

1. FURTIVE

(a) Spicy

(b) Secretive

(c) Palpable (d)

Fruitful

(e) Alien

Correct Answer: (b) Secretive.

The word "furtive" means done in a quiet and secretive way to avoid being noticed. It often implies a sense of slyness or stealth. The correct synonym must capture this essence of secrecy and stealth.

Let's analyze the options:

• (a) Spicy: This word relates to flavor and has no connection to secrecy or stealth.
• (b) Secretive: This word means inclined to conceal feelings and intentions or not disclose information, aligning perfectly with the meaning of "furtive."
• (c) Palpable: This word means capable of being touched or felt; easily perceptible, which is unrelated to secrecy.
• (d) Fruitful: This word means productive or conducive to producing in abundance, and does not imply secrecy or stealth.
• (e) Alien: This word means foreign or unfamiliar, which does not capture the essence of being secretive.

Thus, the closest synonym to "furtive" is "secretive," making the correct answer (b) Secretive.

2. EMULATE

(a) Appear

(b) Impose

(c) Imitate

(d) Operate

(e) Collect

Correct Answer:(c) Imitate.

The word "emulate" means to match or surpass (a person or achievement), typically by imitation. It involves copying someone or something to equal or exceed them.

Let's analyze the options:

• (a) Appear: This word means to become visible or come into sight, which is not related to imitation or copying.
• (b) Impose: This word means to force something to be accepted or put in place, which does not involve imitation.
• (c) Imitate: This word means to take or follow as a model or to copy, which aligns perfectly with the meaning of "emulate."
• (d) Operate: This word means to control the functioning of a machine, process, or system, which is unrelated to imitation.
• (e) Collect: This word means to gather together, which does not involve imitation.

Thus, the closest synonym to "emulate" is "imitate," making the correct answer (c) Imitate.

Directions: In the following questions, each word is followed by five options. Choose the option which is the closest antonym of the given words. While choosing your answer, keep in mind the finer distinctions in the meaning and usage of certain words.

3. FABRICATE

(a) Aggravate

(b) Establish

(c) Destroy

(d) Foster

(e) Electrify

Correct Answer: (c) Destroy.

The word "fabricate" means to invent or concoct something, typically with deceitful intent, or to construct or manufacture something. The correct antonym should represent the opposite action of creating or inventing.

Let's analyze the options:

• (a) Aggravate: This word means to make a problem or offense worse or more serious, which does not relate directly to creating or inventing.
• (b) Establish: This word means to set up or lay the groundwork for something, which can also involve creating, so it is not an antonym.
• (c) Destroy: This word means to put an end to the existence of something by damaging or attacking it, which is the opposite of creating or constructing.
• (d) Foster: This word means to encourage the development or growth of something, which is not the opposite of fabricating.
• (e) Electrify: This word means to charge with electricity or to excite intensely, which does not relate to creating or inventing.

Thus, the closest antonym to "fabricate" is "destroy," making the correct answer (c) Destroy.

Directions: In the following questions, the first two words are related in a particular manner. You have to choose a word from the options so that a new pair of words is formed where the relation is the same as that of the first pair of words. You are required to consider the secondary meaning of certain words while choosing an answer.

4.Pack : Wolves :: Shoal :

(a) Locusts

(b) Fish

(c) Chicken

(d) Books

(e) Passengers

Correct Answer: (b) Fish:

The relationship between the words "Pack" and "Wolves" is that a pack is a group of wolves. Similarly, "Shoal" refers to a group of fish. To complete the analogy, we need to find a word that represents a group similar to how "wolves" is represented in relation to "pack."

Let's analyse the options:

• (a) Locusts: A group of locusts is called a swarm, not a shoal.
• (b) Fish: A shoal is a group of fish, so this matches the analogy perfectly.
• (c) Chicken: A group of chickens is called a flock, not a shoal.
• (d) Books: A group of books is typically called a collection and is not related to shoal.
• (e) Passengers: A group of passengers is not related to shoal; they are often referred to collectively as a group or passengers.

Directions: Fill in the blanks with the words that best fit the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

5. Indian policies should ________ on social justice and on inclusive growth and development, which in the long term will provide greater ________ for all its people.

(a) depend … safety

(b) focus … security

(c) count … confidence

(d) direct … protection

(e) build … delight

Correct Answer: (b) focus … security.

"Indian policies should ________ on social justice and on inclusive growth and development, which in the long term will provide greater ________ for all its people."

Let's break it down:

1. The first blank needs a word that indicates the emphasis or concentration of Indian policies. The best fit here is "focus," as it means to direct attention or effort toward something.
2. The second blank needs a word that describes the benefit or outcome resulting from focusing on social justice and inclusive growth. "Security" fits well because it refers to a state of being free from danger or threat, which is a desirable outcome for all people.

Thus, the complete sentence is: "Indian policies should focus on social justice and on inclusive growth and development, which in the long term will provide greater security for all its people."

Therefore, the correct answer is (b) focus … security.

Directions: In the following questions, each sentence is divided into four parts (a), (b), (c) and (d). Find out which part of the sentence contains an error. If there is no error, mark your answer as (e)

6. While the Indian Constitution guarantees / (a) equality for women, / (b) legal protection have little effect / (c) in the face of prevailing culture. (d) No error (e)

Correct Answer: (b) legal protection have little effect

To clarify the error in the sentence:

• (a) "While the Indian Constitution guarantees" — This part is correct.
• (b) "equality for women," — This part is correct.
• (c) "legal protection have little effect" — This part contains an error. The subject "legal protection" is singular, so it should be "has" instead of "have."
• (d) "in the face of prevailing culture." — This part is correct.

The error is in part (c), where it should be "legal protection has little effect" instead of "legal protection have little effect."

Directions: In the following questions, different parts of a sentence/passage have been jumbled. Choose the option that represents the best sequence to make the sentence/passage coherent and meaningful. Ignore punctuation marks.

7. P: This is only possible by means of a complete revolution in our thinking

Q: We have to get over the transitional period and become a modern, industrial state

R: We must spread scientific thinking on a massive scale

S: Encourage people to give up superstitions and backward feudal ideas

(a) SQPS

(b) QPSR

(c) SPQR

(d) QPRS

(e) QRPS

Correct Answer: (e) QRPS

Here’s the logical flow:

• Q: "We have to get over the transitional period and become a modern, industrial state" — This introduces the need for progress and modernity.
• R: "We must spread scientific thinking on a massive scale" — This suggests that spreading scientific thinking is necessary to achieve the modern state mentioned in Q.
• P: "This is only possible by means of a complete revolution in our thinking" — This explains how spreading scientific thinking will lead to a revolution in thinking.
• S: "Encourage people to give up superstitions and backward feudal ideas" — This provides specific actions (giving up superstitions and feudal ideas) that are part of the revolution in thinking mentioned in P.

Reading Comprehension

Directions: Each passage is followed by questions based on its content. Answer the questions on the basis of what is directly stated in each of the passages or can be inferred from it.

There are millions of children in India, who cannot, for a variety of reasons, be protected by their parents and adult family. They maybe dead, or alcoholic, or violent and abusive, or in jail, or lost, or have abandoned their child. The parents may also be themselves destitute, homeless, gravely ill or disabled, and therefore unable to care for their children without support. The child, who has no home or settled place or abode and any ostensible means of subsistence maybe at risk in other ways as well: due to riots, natural disasters, war and militant conflict; disabilities and incurable terminal ailments, with no one who can support or look after the child; when a child is grossly abused or tortured; is inducted into drug abuse or trafficking; child marriage and child labor. In all such situations, it is the State, which is both morally and legally responsible to protect, nurture and raise each child. However, at present, the State in India invests miniscule resources in child protection. India today is a youthful nation: 19 percent of the children in the world live within its boundaries, and more than one-third of the population is below 18 years. Accounting for the largest number of children in work, and the second largest number of children affected by HIV, India arguably has the highest number of children facing exploitation and neglect in the world. But the investment on child protection was a shocking 0.034 per cent of the budget. Traditionally, public authorities have tried to accomplish their duty of protecting children who are at risk mainly by locking away large numbers of these children in State-run, closed institutions for many years until the child grows to adulthood, and soon after the child comes of age by abruptly discharging the child without any further support into the larger society. Private and religious charities also sometimes run orphanages for such children, but they are usually run on similar custodial principles of raising the child in confined and overly disciplined environments. For children who conflict with the law, there are statutory ‘special homes’ to which they are usually confined in conditions similar to jails. For many years, these children also shared adult jails, and many illegally continue to do so. It is both absurd and heartless for children to be locked up only because they have no one to protect them. It is argued that this is done for the sake of the child: if the child was free in the community, the State would be unable to protect the child from abuse, and therefore she is locked up for her own good. This is quite illogical. The State must find ways to protect the child who is in need of care in ways that respect the child’s right to a happy and free childhood, while at the same time ensuring her protection, and her rights to food, education, health care, recreation, love and security.

1. According to the passage, ‘special homes’ are statutorily run for

(a) Children who are gravely ill or disabled

(b) Orphans and children affected by natural disasters and riots

(c) Children with incurable terminal ailments

(d) Destitute children and children who are addicted to drugs

(e) Juvenile delinquents

Correct Answer: (e) Juvenile delinquents

Explanation: The passage states that "For children who conflict with the law, there are statutory ‘special homes’" which are intended for juvenile delinquents.

2. It is evident from the passage that all these institutions are devoid of

(a) Requisite facilities

(b) Minimum infrastructure

(c) Safety arrangements

(d) Love and affection

(e) Community interaction

Correct Answer: (d) Love and affection

Explanation: The passage criticizes the current system for lacking emotional care, noting that children are often placed in institutions devoid of "love and affection."

3. It becomes an obligation for the State to take moral and legal responsibility in the case of children

(a) Who are badly abused

(b) Whose parents are seriously ill

(c) Who are orphaned or abandoned

(d) Whose parents are destitute and homeless

(e) All the above

Correct Answer: (e) All the above

Explanation: The passage mentions various situations where the State should take moral and legal responsibility for children, including those who are abused, orphaned, abandoned, or have parents who are destitute or homeless.

4. Pick out the statement, which is true.

(a) India accounts for the largest number of children engaged in work

(b) The author feels that it is quite reasonable to keep the neglected children in jails to ensure their safety

(c) Orphanages run by private charities do not enforce strict discipline on the inmates

(d) A huge amount in the Indian budget is reserved for child protection

(e) Compared to the rest of the countries in the world, India has the least number of children, who are affected by HIV

Correct Answer: (a) India accounts for the largest number of children engaged in work

Explanation: The passage mentions India has the highest number of children facing exploitation and neglect, including a large number engaged in work.

5. Pick out the word which is a close synonym of ‘ostensible’ as used in the passage.

(a) Apprehensive

(b) Rigid

(c) Contemptible

(d) Apparent

(e) Unreal

Correct Answer: (d) Apparent

Explanation: "Ostensible" means something that appears to be true or real but may not actually be. "Apparent" is a close synonym.

6. . It may be inferred from the passage that it is the right of every child to have a/an

(a) Luxurious life

(b) Special identity in the society

(c) Individual status

(d) Happy and free childhood

(e) Free access to higher education

Correct Answer: (d) Happy and free childhood

Explanation: The passage highlights the right of every child to a "happy and free childhood" alongside other basic rights.

7. What is the central theme of this passage?

(a) It recommends that State-run institutions should be run on the same lines and follow the model of religious charities

(b) It makes a comparative study about State-run homes and orphanages run by private organizations

(c) It draws conclusions on a study based on ‘children’s jails’

(d) It critically analyses the deplorable conditions in State-run homes

(e) It focuses on the child, who is in need of State support

Correct Answer: (e) It focuses on the child, who is in need of State support

Explanation: The central theme of the passage is the need for improved State support and protection for children in various difficult situations.

Quantitative Aptitude

1. In a group of 100 people, 56 speak Hindi, 42 speak English and 8 speak neither Hindi nor English.

How many can speak English only?

(a) 57

(b) 61

(c) 72

(d) 87

(e) 99

Correct Answer: (a) 57

The correct option is A. The number of people speaking only English is 57.

Let X be the set of people who speak English.
Let Y be the set of people who speak French.
X - Y represents the set of people who speak English but not French.
Y - X represents the set of people who speak French but not English.
X ∩ Y represents the set of people who speak both French and English.

Given:
The number of people who speak English (n(X)) is 72.
The number of people who speak French (n(Y)) is 43.
The number of people who speak either English or French or both (n(X ∪ Y)) is 100.

Now,
The number of people who speak both French and English (n(X ∩ Y)) is calculated as:
n(X ∩ Y) = n(X) + n(Y) - n(X ∪ Y)
= 72 + 43 - 100
= 115 - 100
= 15

Therefore, the number of people who speak both French and English is 15.

The number of people who speak only English (n(X - Y)) is calculated as:
n(X - Y) = n(X) - n(X ∩ Y)
= 72 - 15
= 57

Therefore, the number of people speaking only English is 57.

2. Pipe A can fill an empty tank in 45 minutes and pipe B can empty it in one hour. If pipe A is opened at 10:00 AM and pipe B at 10:15 AM, by what time does the tank get filled?

Correct Answer: (b) 12:15 PM

(a) 12:00 PM

(b) 12:15 PM

(c) 12:30 PM

(d) 1:00 PM

(e) 1:30 PM

Pipe X can fill the tank in 45 minutes, so it fills at a rate of 1/45 of the tank per minute.

Pipe Y can empty the tank in 60 minutes, so it empties at a rate of 1/60 of the tank per minute.

Pipe X has been open for the entire time from 10:00 AM to 10:15 AM, which is a total of 15 minutes. During this time, pipe X fills 15/45 = 1/3 of the tank.

Now, when both pipes are working together, the net rate of filling the tank is given by the difference of their individual rates:

1/45 - 1/60 = 1/180

So, the combined rate at which the tank is filled is 1/180 of the tank per minute.

Now, we need to find out how long it will take for this combined rate to fill the remaining 2/3 of the tank (since 1/3 has already been filled by pipe X).

To do this, we simply divide the remaining amount of the tank to be filled (2/3) by the rate at which it is being filled (1/180).

Therefore, the time required to fill the remaining 2/3 of the tank is (2/3) / (1/180) = 120 minutes.

Adding 120 minutes to 10:15 AM, the tank will be filled by 12:15 PM.

3. Find the greatest number that will divide 49, 147, and 322 to leave the same remainder in each case.

1. 9

2. 5

3. 7

4. 8

Correct Answer: a.9

When two numbers are divided by another number and have the same remainder, their difference must produce a remainder of zero. Use this concept to solve the question.

According to the question,

The differences will be,

⇒ 147 – 49 = 98

⇒ 322 – 147 = 175

⇒ 322 – 49 = 273

The set of numbers {98, 175, 273}

Now HCF of {98, 175, 273}

⇒ 98 = 7 × 7 × 2

⇒ 175 = 5 × 5 × 7

⇒ 273 = 13 × 7 × 3

The HCF of {98, 175, 273} is 7

Hence, the correct answer is 7.

4. On dividing a certain number by 363, we get 17 as the remainder. What will be the remainder when the same number is divided by 11?

1. 7

2. 8

3. 6

4. 9

Correct Answer: c.6

Given that, On dividing a certain number by 363, we get 17 as the remainder.

Let the number be 363x+17

The number = 33x(11)+1(11) + 6

The number = 11(33x+1) + 6

So, the remainder when the given number is divided by 11 is 6.

Hence, the correct answer is 6.

5. A person borrowed INR 2,000 at 5% annual simple interest repayable in 3 equal annual instalments. What will be the annual instalment?

1. INR 730 10/63

2. INR 840 10/63

3. INR 640 11/63

4. INR 250 10/63

Correct Answer: a. INR 730 10/63

P = INR 2,000

Rate = 5%

Time = 3 years

Instalment = (A × 100) / (N × 100 + ((N-1) + (N-2) + ..... + 1) × R)

where, A = Amount, R = Rate, N = Number of Years

Simple Interest = (P × R × T) / 100 = (2000 × 5 × 3) / 100 = 300

Amount = 2000 + 300 = INR 2300

Instalment = (2300 × 100) / (3 × 100 + (2 + 1) × 5)

= 46000 / 63 = 730 10/63

Hence, the correct answer is INR 730 10/63.

6. The salaries of Rida and Riya are in the ratio of 3 : 5, respectively. If the salary of each one is increased by Rs. 5,000, then the new ratio becomes 5 : 7. What is Riya’s present salary?

1. Rs. 12,500

2. Rs. 7,500

3. Rs. 2,500

4. Rs. 10,000

Correct Answer: a. Rs. 12,500

Let the present salaries of Rida and Riya be 3x and 5x respectively. According to the question, (3x + 5000) : (5x + 5000) = 5 : 7.

This gives us:

21x + 35000 = 25x + 25000

4x = 10000

x = 2500

Therefore, the salary of Riya is 5x = 12500.

Hence, the correct answer is Rs. 12500.

7. In a right-angled triangle PQR, right-angled at Q, the length of the side PR is 17 units, the length of the base QR is 8 units, and the length of the side PQ is 15 units. If ∠RPQ = sinα, then sinα + cosα is:

1. 18/17

2. 23/17

3. 21/17

4. 15/17

Correct Answer: B. 23/17

Given, triangle PQR is right-angled at Q with angle RPQ = α. PR is 17 units, QR = 8 units, and PQ = 15 units.

sin(α) + cos(α)

= QR/PR + PQ/PR

= 8/17 + 15/17

= 23/17

Hence, the correct answer is 23/17.

Data sufficiency and Data Interpretation

In each of the following problems, there is one question and two statements I and II given below the question. You have to decide whether the data given in the statements is sufficient to answer the question. Read all the statements carefully and find which of the statements is/are sufficient to answer the given question. Choose the correct alternative in each question:

A. If data in the statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question.

B. If data in the statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.

C If data either in the statement I alone or statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.

D. If data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

1. Question: What will be the compound interest on a sum after 3 years?

Statements:

I. The compound interest on the sum at 5% per annum for 2 years is Rs. 12.50 more than the simple interest.

II. The difference between compound interest and simple interest on the sum for 3 years at 5%per annum is Rs. 38.125.

1. Question: What is the average daily wages of a worker who works for five days; he made Rs. 80 the first, day?

Statements

I. The worker made a total of Rs. 400 for the first four days of work.

II. The worker made 20% more each day than he did on the previous day.

Correct Answer:- B

Explanation:-

Statement I just tells us the total of Rs.400 for the first four days of the work, so the average daily wages of five days cannot be determined. Statement II states that the worker made 20 % more each day and we know that he earns Rs. 80 the first day, so we can calculate the wages for five days and hence the average. Hence statement II alone is sufficient to give the answer.

2. Question: Three men A, B and C invest Rs.4,700 for a business. A invest Rs. 700 more than B and B invest Rs.500 more than C. C invest for 14 months. How much profit will A receive?

Statements:

I. Total profit at the end of the year is Rs.840,

II. A,B subscribe their money in a business for 8 and 9 months respectively,

Correct Answer:- D

$\begin{array}{r}\because A+B+C=Rs.4,700\\ \Rightarrow (c+1200)+(c+500)+c=4700\\ \Rightarrow c=Rs\cdot 1,000\end{array}$

From statement I alone we cannot answer the question as we don't know for what time money is invested. similarly, from statement II alone we cannot answer the question as we don't know the total profit to be showed. But using both the statements together we can answer the question.

3. Question: In What ratio should pure and adulterated fruit juices be sold so as to make a profit of 10% by selling the mixture at Rs.14/litre?

Statements:

I Pure juice is sold at Rs. 18 per litre to get a profit of 20%.

II. Adulterated juice is sold at Rs.15 per litre to get a profit of 25%.

Correct Answer:- D

CP of mixture $=\frac{14}{1\cdot 1}=Rs.12\cdot 72/L$

From stetement I alone or statement II alone canonot answer the question.

using both the statements together we can answer the question.

CP of pure juice $=\frac{18}{12}=Rs.15/L$

and CP of adulterated juice $=\frac{15}{1\cdot 25}=Rs.\cdot 12/L$

Now, using alligation we can answer the question.

4. Question: What is the code for 'is' in the code language?

Statements:

I. In the code language, 'lo ki ju' means 'apple is red'.

II. In the same code language, 'tu ki ma' means 'banana is yellow'.

Correct Answer:- D

From both I and II, we can conclude that the code for 'is' in the code language is 'ki'.

5. . Question: What is Aditi's height?

Statements:

I. Aditi, Neha, and Ria are all of the same height.

II. The total height of Neha, Ria, and Sia is 150 cm, and Sia is as tall as Neha and Ria combined.

Correct Answer:- D

As given in statements I and II, we have: A = N = R, N + R + S = 150, and S = N + R.

Substituting N + R = S into N + R + S = 150, we have: 2S = 150 or S = 75.

Thus, N + R = 75 and N = R. So, N = R = 37.5. Thus, A = 37.5.

Study the bar graph below are answer the questions that follow:

6.

The import and export of a country (in lakhs rupees) during a certain period is given in the following bar graph. Read the bar graph carefully and answer the following question.

During which year the difference between import and export is minimal?

1. 2018 - 19

2. 2019 - 20

3. 2016 - 17

4. 2017 - 18

Correct answer: A. 2018 - 19

.Import in 2015-16 = 738

Export in 2015-2016 = 825

Difference between import and export in 2015-16 = 87

Import in 2016-17 = 1200

Export in 2015-2016 = 1014

Difference between import and export in 2016-17 = 86

Import in 2017-18 = 1600

Export in 2017-2018 = 1240

Difference between import and export in 2017-18 = 360

Import in 2018-19 = 1537

Export in 2018-2019 = 1522

Difference between import and export in 2018-19 = 15

Import in 2019-20 = 1310

Export in 2019-2020 = 1650

Difference between import and export in 2015-16 = 340

So, the Year 2018-19 has the minimum required difference.

Hence, the correct answer is 2018-19

7. What is the average of exports during the given period of time?

1. Rs.1,250.2 lakhs

2. Rs.1,240.0 lakhs

3. Rs.1,248.2 lakhs

4. Rs.1,115.4 lakhs

Correct answer: A. Rs.1,250.2 lakhs

Total export of the country = 825 + 1014 + 1240 + 1522 + 1650 = 6251

Total number of years = 5

Average export = Total export / Number of years

Average export = 6251 / 5

Average export = 1250.2

Hence, the answer is Rs. 1250.2 lakhs.

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