ICFAI Business School-IBSAT 2024
9 IBS Campuses | Scholarships Worth Rs 10 CR
The TS ICET exam is expected to take place in June 2025, so now is the time to ramp up your preparation. With only a short time left, start taking TS ICET mock tests regularly. Alongside mock tests, practising previous TS ICET papers and sample papers can help you get comfortable with the exam format. Careers360 has designed this article where You can download these Telangana ICET past papers with solutions in PDF from the links provided below.
Practising TS ICET 2025 previous year papers with answers, Candidates will have a clearer perspective and improved understanding of the exam. Apart from that, students will learn about the question type, marking method, length, and other crucial components of the TS ICET 2025 test. The comprehensive answers will help candidates comprehend the logic and principles behind each right answer.
Download TS ICET Question Paper with Solution (Ebook)
Check out the table below to download TS ICET previous papers with solutions PDFs.
Year of TS ICET Question Papers | TS ICET Previous Paper Download Link |
2023 | |
2022 | TS ICET 2022 Day 1 Forenoon Session TS ICET 2022 Day 1 Afternoon Session |
2021 | |
2020 | |
2019 | |
2018 | |
2017 | |
2016 | |
2015 |
Know: How to prepare for TS ICET exam?
Q. Note: Pick the odd thing out
CROW, PIGEON, HEN, PARROT, KING FISHER
(1) CROW
(2) PIGEON
(3) HEN
(4) PARROT
Correct Option. 3
Solution:
Hen is the only bird among these that cannot fly long distances. Hence, it is the odd one out.
Q. Note: Pick the odd thing out
Lake. Pond, Pool, Tank, Brook, Sump
(1) Lake
(2) Brook
(3) Pond
(4) Tank
Correct Option. 2
Solution:
Here, brook is the odd one out as it is a flowing body of water, while all the others are standing bodies of water.
Q. Note: The question follows a definite pattern, observe the same and fill in the blanks with suitable ones.
196,16,144,36,…,64,64,100,36,144
(1) 72
(2) 86
(3) 94
(4) 100
Correct Option. 4
Solution:
Given: 196,16,144,36,…,64,64,100,36,144
= 14², 4², 12², 6², …, 8², 8², 10², 6², 12²
= 14², 4², 12², 6², 10², 8², 8², 10², 6², 12²
= 100
Q. Note: The question follows a definite pattern, observe the same and fill in the blanks with suitable ones.
0,6,24,60,120,210,….504,720
(1) 280
(2) 292
(3) 336
(4) 372
Correct Option. 3
Solution:
Given: 0,6,24,60,120,210,….504,720
= 0 = 0x1x2
6 = 1x2x3
24 = 2x3x4
60 = 3x4x5
120 = 4x5x6
210 = 5x6x7
___ = 6x7x8
504 = 7x8x9
720 = 8x9x10
⇒ 6x7x8 = 336
Q. In a code language if TRAIN is coded as UQBHO. then PLACE is coded in that language as
(1) QKBAD
(2) OMBDF
(3) OKAZH
(4) QKBBF
Correct Option. 4
Solution:
Following the same pattern,
Hence, the answer is QKBBF
Q. If X is mother of Y, Y is father of Z and P is a sister of Z, then P is related to X as
(1) Grand mother
(2) Grand daughter
(3) Niece
(4) Maternal aunt
Correct Option. 2
Solution:
According to the details given in the question, the following chart can be created:
Based on the above image, P is the granddaughter of X.
Q. Rita comes to Railway station at 10.20 am and finds that she is 40 minutes early. But the train is running 20 minutes late. What is the right schedule time of arrival of the train?
(1) 10.50am
(2) 10.40am
(3) 10.35am
(4) 10.30am
Correct Option. 2
Solution:
Rita’s time of arrival at the station = 10:20 a.m
She is 40 minutes early
That means current arrival time of train = 11:00 a.m
But the train is 20 minutes late
So, the actual/scheduled arrival time = 11:00 a.m - 20 minutes
⇒ 10.40am
Q. If VIRUS is coded as UHQTR then the code for MASK is
(1) LZRJ
(2) LRZJ
(3) LJRZ
(4) LZIR
Correct Option. 1
Solution:
According to the details given in the question,
Following the same pattern,
Hence LZRJ is the correct solution.
Q. If SWEDEN is coded as 123435 and GLAND is coded as 67854 , then the code for ENGLAND is
(1) 3567854
(2) 1267854
(3) 3267854
(4) 1367854
Correct Option. 1
Solution:
S W E D E N | 1 2 3 4 3 5 | G L A N D | 67854 |
Based on the above, ENGLAND = 3567854
Q. What is the angle between the hour hand and minute hand in the wall clock when the time shown in the clock is 8.25 am?
(1) 98∘
(2) 100.5∘
(3) 102.5∘
(4) 115∘
Correct Option. 3
Solution
Angle = (11/2)M - 30H
M = minutes, H = hours
= 11/2 x 25 - 30 x 8
= 275/2 - 240
= -102.5
Angle = 102.5∘
Q. If the area of an equilateral triangle is 9√3cm2, then its perimeter, in centimeters, is
(1) 21
(2) 12
(3) 15
(4) 18
Correct Option: 4
Solution:
Area of Eq. triangle = √3 a²/4
√3 a²/4 = 9√3cm²
a² = 9 x 4
a = 6 cm
Perimeter of eq. Triangle = 3a = 3x6 = 18 cm
Q. P can do a piece of work in 24 days, Q in 30 days and R in 60 days. In how many days all the three together can do that work?
(1) 11 4/11
(2) 10 10/11
(3) 9 10/11
(4) 10 8/11
Correct Option: 2
Solution:
Amt of work done by P in one day = 1/24
Amt of work done by Q in one day = 1/30
Amt of work done by R in one day = 1/60
Total work they can do in one day = 1/24+1/30+1/60 = 11/120
So, P Q R can complete the work in 120/11 = 10 10/11 days
Q. A man sold an article at a profit of 12%. Had he sold it Rs. 180 more, 18% would have been gained. What is the cost price of the article(in rupees)?
(1) 2800
(2) 3000
(3) 3200
(4) 3600
Correct Option: 2
Solution:
Let CP = x
1st case,
SP = 1.12x
In 2nd case,
1.12x + 180 = 1.18x
180 = 0.06x
x = 180/0.06 = 3000
CP = Rs 3000
Q.
10
512
256
20
Correct Option: 1
Solution:
Q. The volume of a right circular cone of height 12 cm and base radius 6 cm is equal to half of the volume of a sphere. Then the radius of the sphere (in cm ) is
1) 6
2) 5
3) 4
4) 3
Correct Option: 1
Solution:
Volume of cone = ½ volume of sphere
13 r2chc = 1243 r3s
63 = r3s
rs = 6 cm
Hence the radius of the sphere is 6 cm.
Q. Five pens and six pencils cost Rs.28. Six pens and five pencils cost Rs.27.
Now the cost (in Rupees) of each pen and each pencil respectively?
1) 3,2
2) 2,3
3) 1,4
4) 4,1
Correct Option: 2
Solution:
Let the price of 1 pen = P
Let the price of 1 pencil = Pc
So, 5P + 6Pc = 28 - 1
And, 6P + 5Pc = 27 - 2
1 x 6 and 2 x 5
So, from 1
30P + 36 Pc = 28x6 - 3
And from 2
30P + 25 Pc = 27x5 - 4
3 - 4
11Pc = 28x6 - 27x5
Pc = 3
Using 1
5P + 6x3 = 28
P = 2
Answer = 2, 3
Q. A solid metal sphere of 12 cm diameter is melted and cast into a cylindrical wire of diameter 4 mm. Then the length of the wire (in meters) is
(1) 70
(2) 72
(3) 76
(4) 78
Correct Option: 2
Solution:
Convert to meters:
Length of the wire = 7200/100 =72 m
So, the length of the wire is 72 meters.
Q. In a business P, Q and R invested Rs. 6000,Rs.8000 and Rs. 12000 respectively. What is the share of Q in the total profit of Rs. 10400 (in rupees)
(1) 3600
(2) 2400
(3) 1600
(4) 3200
Correct Option: 4
Solution:
Q's investment is Rs. 8000, and the total investment is Rs. 6000 + Rs. 8000 + Rs. 12000 = Rs. 26000.
Thus, the fraction of the total investment that Q contributed is
8000/26000 = 4 /13
Q's share of the profit:
So, the share of Q in the total profit of Rs. 10400 is Rs. 3200.
Q. Two pipes P and Q can separately fill a cistern in 6 hours and 8 hours respectively, while a third pipe R can empty it in 12 hours. If all the three pipes are opened together, then the time taken to fill the cistern is
(1) 4 hrs. 36 min.
(2) 4 hrs. 48 min.
(3) 4 hrs. 12 min.
(4) 4 hrs. 40 min.
Correct Option: 2
Solution:
In one hour,
Pipe P can fill = ⅙ cistern
Pipe Q can fill = ⅛ cistern
Pipe R can empty = -1/12 cistern
Combined = ⅙ + ⅛ - 1/12
= 5/24 cisterns per hour
Time taken to fill the cistern = 1 ፥ 5/24 hours
= 24/5 hours
Converting to hours and minutes = 4 hours 48minutes
Q. A man walks along the diagonal of a square field at the rate of 8 kmph for 36 minutes. What is area of the square field ( in sq. kms)?
(1) 11.25
(2) 10.52
(3) 11.52
(4) 12.64
Correct Option: 3
Solution:
Distance covered by the man = speed x time
= 8 x 36/60 km = 4.8 km
Length of the diagonal ( d ) of a square is √2 times the length of one side ( s ).
So, the area of the square field is approximately 11.52 sq. km.
Q. A child with exceptional abilities is called as ______
(1) frontrunner
(2) watchdog
(3) optimist
(4) prodigy
Correct Option: 4
Solution:
A prodigy is someone who is so naturally talented in a particular skill as a child that they become a master of that skill.
Q. The antonym of 'lucid' is
(1) clear
(2) understandable
(3) obscure
(4) bright
Correct Option: 3
Solution:
Lucid means clear or easy to understand. Obscure, which means hidden, vague, or unclear, is the opposite in meaning hence (3) is the correct option.
Q. My grandson ______ the guitar every week.
(1) is practicing
(2) practices
(3) has been practicing
(4) was practicing
Correct Option: 2
Solution:
My grandson practices the guitar every week is the correct sentence. Here, simple present tense is used since it describes habitual actions or routines.
Q. He prefers to travel in _____ RTC bus.
(1) a
(2) an
(3) the
(4) about
Correct Option: 2
Solution:
“An” RTC bus is the correct answer. Although the letter R is a consonant, RTC is pronounced as “aar-T-C” i.e., there is a vowel sound in the beginning. Hence an is used.
Q. HTTP stands for
(1) Hyper Text Transfer Programme.
(2) High-level Text Training Practice.
(3) Hyper Text Transfer Protocol.
(4) Hyper Text Training Programme.
Correct Option: 3
Solution:
HTTP (Hypertext Transfer Protocol) is the underlying protocol used by the World Wide Web. It defines how messages are formatted and transmitted, as well as how web servers and browsers should respond to various commands.
Q. A written summary of context and content of job is called
(1) resume.
(2) job description.
(3) job specification.
(4) job posting.
Correct Option: 2
Solution:
A job description or JD includes a summary of responsibilities, duties, qualifications, and requirements of a particular job.
Read the passage and answer the questions that follow:
Philosophy of Education is a label applied to the study of the purpose, process nature and ideals of education. It can be considered a branch of both philosophy and education. Plato is the earliest important educational thinker, and education is an essential element in "The Republic". In it, he advocates some rather extreme methods: removing children from their mothers' care and raising them as wards of the state, and differentiating children suitable to the various castes, the highest receiving the most education, so that they could act as guardians of the city and care for the less abled. He believed that education should be holistic and that talent and intelligence is not distributed genetically and thus is to be found in children born to all classes, although his proposed system of selective public education for an educated minority of the population does not really follow a democratic model.
Aristotle considered human nature, habit and reason to be equally important forces to be cultivated in education, the ultimate aim of which should be to produce good and virtuous citizens. He proposed that teachers lead their students systematically, and that repetition be used as a key tool to develop good habits, unlike Socrates' emphasis on questioning his listeners to bring out their own ideas. He emphasized the balancing of the theoretical and practical aspects of subjects taught, among which he explicitly mentions reading, writing, mathematics, music, physical education, literature, history and a wide range of sciences, as well as play, which he also considered important.
Q. Education is considered a branch of
(1) Philosophy only.
(2) Education only
(3) both Philosophy and Education.
(4) teaching
Correct Option: 3
Solution:
According to the passage, “Philosophy of Education is a label applied to the study of the purpose, process nature and ideals of education. It can be considered a branch of both philosophy and education”. This implies that option 3 is correct.
Q. The author of 'The Republic' is _______
(1) Aristotle
(2) St Thomas Aquinas
(3) Socrates
(4) Plato
Correct Option: 4
Solution:
In the passage, it is written that “Plato is the earliest important educational thinker, and education is an essential element in ‘The Republic’”. Hence, option 4 is correct.
Q. Who, according to Plato, have the potential of becoming guardians of the city?
(1) the least-educated.
(2) the less-abled.
(3) wards of the state.
(4) highly-educated selective minority of students.
Correct Option: 4
Solution:
The passage mentions “differentiating children suitable to the various castes, the highest receiving the most education, so that they could act as guardians of the city”. This implies that highly-educated selective minority of students have the potential to become guardians of the city.
Q. The purpose of education, according to Aristotle, is _____
(1) to produce strong citizens.
(2) to train the students as good and virtuous citizens.
(3) to shape questioning students.
(4) to produce bad citizens.
Correct Option: 2
Solution:
According to the passage, “Aristotle considered human nature, habit and reason to be equally important forces to be cultivated in education, the ultimate aim of which should be to produce good and virtuous citizens”. Hence, option 2 is the correct answer.
During TS ICET preparation, candidates should solve the TS ICET sample paper and TS ICET mock tests on a regular basis to improve their speed and accuracy rate. Candidates who are interested in appearing for TS ICET 2025 entrance exam for MBA must know the exam pattern and syllabus. While solving the TS ICET 2025 question papers, students will be able to identify their weak and strong areas.
Careers360 brings you an article that covers all the details related to TS ICET sample papers and TS ICET question papers with answers. You will get to know how to download TS ICET sample paper and the benefits of solving TS ICET previous year question papers.
Candidates need to follow the steps given below to download the TS ICET sample paper PDFs.
Step 1 - Visit the official website of Careers360
Step 2 - Now register and create login credentials.
Step 3 - Re-login by using login credentials.
Step 4 - Now click on the ‘Sample Paper’ tab and click on the TS ICET question paper.
Step 5 - Now click on the ‘Free Download’ tab.
Step 6 - Start practising for TS ICET 2025.
Candidates can also download the TS ICET previous year papers by visiting the official website.
Q. How many students in a class play basketball?
Statements:
Only girls play basketball.
There are fifty boys and twenty-five girls in the class.
Options:
A. I alone is sufficient while II alone is not sufficient
B. II alone is sufficient while I alone is not sufficient
C. Either I or II is sufficient
D. Neither I nor II is sufficient
Correct Option: D
Solution
Neither I nor II is sufficient to determine how many students play
basketball in the class. Because it is not mentioned in the question about the number of boys
who play basketball.
Q. Neha's and Arjun's incomes are in the ratio of 5 : 2 respectively. What is Neha's income?
Statements:
A. Arjun's income is 60% that of Neha's income.
B. Arjun's income is Rs 4800.
Options:
A. Statement A alone is sufficient while B alone is not sufficient.
B. Statement B alone is sufficient while A alone is not sufficient.
C. Either A or B is sufficient.
D. Neither A nor B is sufficient.
E. Both A and B are sufficient.
Correct Option: B
Solution:
Statement A is simply an interpretation of the information provided in the question.
47
However, Neha's income can be determined from Statement B as follows: Let Neha's and
Arjun's incomes be 5y and 2y respectively. Then, 2y = 4800 or y = 2400. Therefore, Neha's
income = 5y = Rs. 12000. Hence only B is required.
Q. Directions: Which letter cluster will replace the question mark (?) to complete the given series?
GTCL, KWEM, OZGN, SCIO, ?
A. VGLQ
B. WKFD
C. VJEF
D. WFKP
Correct Option: D
Solution
Given: GTCL, KWEM, OZGN, SCIO,?
Add consecutive natural numbers in decreasing order (starting from 4) to the letters of the
previous term to get the next term in the series.
GTCL → G + 4 = K; T + 3 = W; C + 2 = E; L + 1 = M → KWEM
KWEM → K + 4 = O; W + 3 = Z; E + 2 = G; M + 1 = N → OZGN
OZGN → O + 4 = S; Z + 3 = C; G + 2 = I; N + 1 = O → SCIO
SCIO → S + 4 = W; C + 3 = F; I + 2 = K; O + 1 = P → WFKP
So, WFKP is the missing term in the given series. Hence, the fourth option is correct.
Q. Directions: Select the number from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.
2, 6, 9, 27, 30, 90, ?
A. 85
B. 88
C. 90
D. 93
Correct Option: D
Solution:
Given: 2, 6, 9, 27, 30, 90, ?
Multiply and add 3 alternatively to each term of the series to get the next term.
2 × 3 = 6; 6 + 3 = 9; 9 × 3 = 27; 27 + 3 = 30; 30 × 3 = 90; 90 + 3 = 93
So, 93 is the missing term of the series. Hence, the fourth option is correct.
Q. Directions: Select the number from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.
31, 37, 46, 60, 81, ?
A. 117
B. 106
C. 122
D. 111
Correct Option: D
Solution:
Given: 31, 37, 46, 60, 81, ?
The difference of the numbers being added to the terms of the series is an odd number.
The pattern is as follows –
So, 111 is the missing number of the given series. Hence, the fourth option is correct.
Q. Directions: Select the option that is related to the third word in the same way as the
second word is related to the first word.
(The words must be considered as meaningful English words and must not be related to each other based on the number of letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word)
Milk : Litre :: Sugar : ?
A. Hectare
B. Kilometer
C. Metre
D. Kilogram
Correct Option: D
Solution:
Given: Milk : Litre :: Sugar : ?
Milk is measured in Litres.
Similarly, Sugar is measured in Kilograms.
Therefore, Kilogram is the correct answer and the series is as follows –
Milk : Litre :: Sugar : Kilogram
Hence, the fourth option is correct.
Q. Directions: Three of the following four-letter clusters are alike in a certain way and one is different. Pick the odd one out.
A. HMS
B. AFZ
C. KQP
D. DIW
Correct Option: C
Solution:
Let's check the options –
First option: HMS → S is the opposite of H; H + 5 = M
Second option: AFZ → Z is the opposite of A; A + 5 = F
Third option: KQP → P is the opposite of K; K + 6 = Q
Fourth option: DIW → W is the opposite of D; D + 5 = I
The third option differs from the other three options as the difference between the first and
second letters is 6 instead of 5. Hence, the third option is correct.
Q. Directions: Select the word pair that best represents a similar relationship to the one
expressed in the pair of words given below. (The words must be considered meaningful
English words and must not be related to each other based on the number of letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word)
Librarian : Library
A. Sailor: Aeroplane
B. Priest : Temple
C. Watchmen : Train
D. Doctor: Treatment
Correct Option: B
Solution:
Given: Librarian : Library
A librarian is the caretaker of the library as he is responsible for ensuring that the library works
smoothly and efficiently.
Let's check each option –
First option: Sailor : Aeroplane – There is no direct relationship between sailor and aeroplane.
Second option: Priest : Temple – Priest is responsible for ensuring the efficient working of the
temple and he looks after the religious activities of the temple.
Third option: Watchmen : Train – There is no direct relationship between watchmen and train.
Fourth option: Doctor : Treatment – The doctor's job is to treat people but he is the caretaker
of the hospital. So, the relationship is not similar as given in the question.
Hence, the second option is correct.
Q. Directions: In a certain code language, GALE is coded as 3576, and FLAG is coded as
7361. What is the code for E in the given code language?
A. 6
B. 5
C. 3
D. 7
Correct Option: B
Solution:
Given: GALE→3576; FLAG→7361
On comparing both the coded words, we find that –
In the given words, G, A, L, and the codes 3, 6, and 7 are common.
The remaining letter and code in Word 1 is E and 5. So, the code of E is 5.
Hence, the second option is correct.
Q. Directions: If MOMENTUM is coded as EMOMNTUM, then MAGNETIC will be coded as?
A. NGMAEITC
B. NGAMECTI
C. NGAMETIC
D. NGMAETIC
Correct Option: C
Solution:
Given: MOMENTUM is coded as EMOMNTUM.
MOMENTUM is coded as EMOMNTUM –
Divide the letters of the word into two halves→MOME / NTUM
Reverse the letters of the first part→EMOM; write the second part as it is.
Now, join them, the code will be EMOMNTUM.
Similarly, MAGNETIC is coded as –
Divide the letters of the word into two halves→MAGN / ETIC
Reverse the letters of the first part→NGAM; write the second part as it is.
Now, join them, the code will be NGAMETIC.
So, MAGNETIC is written as NGAMETIC in that code language. Hence, the third option is correct.
Q. The least number which should be added to 8961 to make it exactly divisible by 84 is:
A. 27
B. 57
C. 141
D. 107
Correct Option: A
Solution:
When 8961 is divided by 84, the quotient is 106, and the remainder is 57.
The required number which should be added = Divisor - remainder
= 84 - 57 = 27
Hence, the correct answer is 27.
Q. Directions: A certain sum of money was distributed among Darshana, Swati, and Nivriti. Nivriti has INR 539 with her. If the ratio of the money distributed among Darshana, Swati, and Nivriti is 5: 6: 7, what is the total sum of money that was distributed?
A. INR 1,341
B. INR 1,422
C. INR 1,386
D. INR 1,356
Correct Option: C
Solution:
Given:
The ratio of the money distributed among Darshana, Swati, and Nivriti is 5 : 6 : 7
Darshna : Swati : Nivriti → 5 : 6 : 7
But Nivriti has Rs. 539 with her.
Then, 7→539
1 = 539 ÷ 7
1→77
The total sum of money = 5 + 6 + 7 = 18
The total sum of money was distributed = 18 x 77 = 1386.
So, the total sum of money distributed is 1,386 rs. Hence, the third option is correct.
Q. Find the LCM of 20, 30, 45 and 65.
A. 2000
B. 2340
C. 2240
D. 180
Correct Option: B
Solution:
Given: The numbers are 20, 30, 45 and 65.
The LCM of the provided numbers is the product of the factors with the highest powers.
The factors of the number 20 = 22 × 5.
The factors of the number 30 = 2 × 3 × 5.
The factors of the number 45 = 32 × 5.
The factors of the number 65 = 5 × 13.
LCM(20, 30, 45, 65) = 22 × 32 × 5 × 13 = 2340.
Hence, the correct answer is 2340.
Q. The cost of apples is increased by 20% and then decreased by 20%. What is the net percentage decrease?
A. 4%
B. 3%
C. 5%
D. 6%
Correct Option: A
Solution:
Let the price of apples be Rs. 100
After the increase, the price = 100 × 120% = Rs. 120
After the decrease, the price = 120 × 80% = Rs. 96
⇒ Decrease = 100 – 96 = Rs. 4
Net percentage decrease = (4/100) × 100 = 4%
Hence, the correct answer is 4%
Q. A, B and C enter into a partnership with capitals in the ratio 2/3 : 3/5 : 5/6. After 8 months, A increases his share of capital by 25%. If at the end of the year, the total profit earned is INR 5,820, then the share of C in the profit is:
A. INR 2,050
B. INR 2,350
C. INR 2,450
D. INR 2,250
Correct Option: D
Solution:
Capitals ratio of A, B and C = 2/3 : 3/5 : 5/6
= (2 × 30)/3 : (3 × 30)/5 : (5 × 30)/6
= 20 : 18 : 25
Capitals ratio of A, B and C after end of the year,
= (20 × 8 + 20 × 5/4 × 4) : 18 × 12 : 25 × 12
= (160 + 100) : 216 : 300
= 260 : 216 : 300
Capitals ratio of A, B and C after end of the year = 260x : 216x : 300x = 65x : 54x : 75x
According to the question,
⇒ 65x + 54x + 75x = 5820
⇒ 194x = 5820
⇒ x = 30
Share of C = 75 × 30 = INR 2250
Hence, the correct answer is INR 2250.
Q. A can complete a work in 18 days, while B can complete it in 12 days. B worked on it for 4 days. How long will A take to finish the remaining work?
A. 16 days
B. 12 days
C. 14 days
D. 10 days
Correct Option: B
Solution:
A can complete a work in 18 days.
A's 1 day's work = 1/18
B can complete it in 12 days.
B's 1 day's work = 1/12
B's 4 days' work = 1/12 × 4 = 1/3
Work left = 1 - 1/3 = 2/3
A will finish the remaining work in 2/3 divided by 1/18 = 12 days
Hence, the correct answer is 12 days.
Q. An inlet pipe can fill an empty tank in 3.6 hours, while an outlet pipe can drain a completely filled tank in 6.3 hours. If both the pipes are opened simultaneously when the tank is empty, in how many hours will the tank get completely filled?
A. 9
B. 8.4
C. 8.1
D. 8.7
Correct Option: B
Solution:
The rate at which the inlet pipe can fill the tank is 1 tank per 3.6 hours, or 1/3.6 tanks per hour.
The rate at which the outlet pipe can drain the tank is 1 tank per 6.3 hours, or 1/6.3 tanks per hour.
When both pipes are opened simultaneously, the net rate of filling the tank is the rate of the inlet pipe minus the rate of the outlet pipe.
Net rate = 1/3.6 - 1/6.3
Time = 1/Net rate
Time = 1/(1/3.6 - 1/6.3)
Time = 1/(5/18 - 10/63) = 1/(5/42) = 42/5
Time = 8.4
Hence, the correct answer is 8.4.
Q. The radius of a hemisphere is 6.3 cm. What will be its volume?
A. 572.80 cm3
B. 643.50 cm3
C. 523.90 cm3
D. 353.38 cm3
Correct Option: C
Solution:
Volume of a hemisphere with radius r = (1/2) × (4/3)πr3
= (1/2) × (4/3) × (22/7) × 6.3 × 6.3 × 6.3
= 523.90 cm3
Hence, the correct answer is 523.90 cm3
Q. The average of 100 items was found to be 30. If, at the time of calculation, two items were wrongly taken as 32 and 12 instead of 23 and 11, then the correct average is:
A. 29.8
B. 29
C. 29.9
D. 29.5
Correct Option: C
Solution:
Given: The average of 100 items is 30.
Sum of all items = 100 × 30 = 3000
A wrong entry of 32 and 12 instead of 23 and 11 is also included.
The difference made by the wrong entry of 32 and 12 instead of 23 and 11 = (32 + 12) – (23 + 11) = 10
So, the actual sum = (3000 – 10) = 2990
Average value = Sum of observations / Total no. of observations
So, the average of the items = 2990 / 100 = 29.90
Hence, the correct answer is 29.90.
Q. If the sum of three of an AP is 15 and their product is 80, then the terms are
A. 1, 5, 9
B. 5, 5, 5
C. 2, 5, 8
D. 4, 5, 6
Correct Option: C
Solution:
Let three numbers be a - d, a, a + d
Given that
a - d + a + a + d = 15
3a = 15
a = 5
and,
(5-d)(5)(5+d)=80
(5-d)(5+d)=16
d = 3
terms of AP are 5-3, 5, 5 + 3 i.e. 2,5,8
Q. . The archaeologist meticulously uncovered the ancient artifacts, revealing a rich and________ history of the civilization.
A. Somber
B. Eclectic
C. Joyous
D. Redundant
Correct Option: B
Solution:
"Eclectic" refers to a variety of elements or styles coming together. In this context, it suggests that the archaeologist uncovered artefacts representing a diverse and varied history of the civilisation.
Q. Select the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word in the given sentence.
Isn’t knowledge supposed to make life sweeter and happier?
A. Curriculum
B. Profession
C. Wisdom
D. Superiority
Correct Option: C
Solution:
The third option is the correct choice.
Wisdom means the quality of having experience, knowledge, and good judgement; the ability to make sound decisions. This aligns with the idea of knowledge contributing to a sweeter and happier life.
The meanings of the other options are as follows:
• The curriculum is the set of subjects comprising a course of study in an educational institution.
• A profession is a paid occupation, especially one that involves prolonged training and a formal qualification.
• Superiority is the state of being superior or higher in quality.
Q. Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.
Demolish
A. Create
B. Fabricate
C. Ruin
D. Shape
Correct Option: C
Solution:
Demolish means to destroy or dismantle, often applied to buildings or structures, while ruin aligns closely by indicating the process or outcome of destruction, leading to a state of ruin or devastation.
The meanings of other options are as follows:
• To create is to bring something into existence.
• Fabricate means to construct or manufacture, often referring to creating something from various components.
• Shape means to form or mould into a specific structure or form.
Therefore, the correct answer is ruin.
Q. What type of computer is designed for large-scale processing of business data and is commonly used in organizations for tasks such as database management and transaction processing?
A. Supercomputers
B. Mainframe Computers
C. Microcomputers
D. Minicomputers
Correct Option: B
Solution:
Mainframe computers are designed for large-scale data processing in organizations. They excel in handling tasks such as database management and transaction processing, making them essential for business operations.
Q. Which category of computers is known for its extremely high-performance capabilities and is often used for complex scientific and engineering calculations?
A. Minicomputers
B. Supercomputers
C. Workstations
D. Microcomputers
Correct Option: B
Solution:
Supercomputers are known for their exceptional performance in handling complex scientific and engineering calculations. They are utilized for tasks such as weather forecasting, molecular modelling, and nuclear simulations due to their high processing power.
Q. Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.
Predicament
A. Ease
B. Quandary
C. Blessing
D. Solution
Correct Option: B
Solution:
The most appropriate synonym for the word "Predicament" is "Quandary".
A predicament is a difficult or challenging situation, often involving a dilemma or problem. A "quandary" refers to a state of uncertainty or a difficult situation, making it a synonym for "predicament".
The meanings of the other options are as follows:
• Ease means the absence of difficulty.
• Blessing means a beneficial thing for which one is grateful.
• Solution means a means of solving a problem or dealing with a difficult situation.
Therefore, the correct sentence is, "He found himself in a quandary, unsure of how to proceed."
Q. She insisted on ________ the document before the meeting.
A. Reviewing
B. Reviewed
C. Review
D. Reviews
Correct Option: A
Solution:
In this context, the sentence suggests an ongoing activity of reviewing the document before the meeting. The gerund form "reviewing" is used to convey continuous or habitual actions.
Q. . The chef spent hours ________ the perfect recipe for the new dish.
A. To Develop
B. Developed
C. Developing
D. Develop
Correct Option: C
Solution:
The sentence talks about the chef spending time on an ongoing process of creating the perfect recipe. The present participle form "developing" is suitable for describing continuous actions.
Q. She decided to ________ smoking last year and has been successful in maintaining a smoke-free lifestyle.
A. Give Up
B. Give Off
C. Give Away
D. Give In
Correct Option: A
Solution:
The phrasal verb "give up" means to stop doing something, especially a habit like smoking. In this context, it implies the decision to quit smoking.
Q. The manager asked the employee to ________ the report before the deadline.
A. Turn Up
B. Turn In
C. Turn On
D. Turn Over
Correct Option: B
Solution:
The phrasal verb "turn in" means to submit or hand in. The manager asked the employee to submit the report before the deadline.
By practising with TS ICET 2025 question paper, candidates will be able to:
Build self-confidence: Since candidates will already be familiar with the paper pattern and types of questions asked in the exam by solving TS ICET previous papers, they will be confident while attempting questions in the actual exam.
Analyze their preparation level: Solving previous year TS ICET question papers and mock tests helps a student to identify his/her strengths and weaknesses based on which he/she can make adequate changes in the preparation plan. It helps to understand the TS ICET 2025 exam pattern and marking scheme of each question.
Revise quickly: By taking the help of TS ICET previous question papers with solutions, candidates will be able to revise what they have studied by applying the concepts in the questions.
Increase speed and accuracy rate: By practising TS ICET model papers, students can find tricks and shortcuts to solve each question quickly and accurately. It helps a candidate in the time factor and also gives exam pressure to handle them in the best possible way.
The TS ICET 2025 exam pattern includes the total number of questions, the duration of the exam, in which mode the exam will be conducted, and so forth. Before solving the TS ICET Model Papers, candidates should follow the exam pattern and accordingly draw a strategy to prepare for the TS ICET 2025 exam.
Sections | Number of questions | Marks |
Section A - Analytical Ability | 75 | 75 |
Problem-Solving | 55 | 55 |
Data Sufficiency | 20 | 20 |
Section B - Mathematical Ability | 75 | 75 |
Algebraical Ability and Geometrical Ability | 30 | 30 |
Arithmetical Ability | 35 | 35 |
Statistical Ability | 10 | 10 |
Section C - Communication Ability | 50 | 50 |
Business and Computer Terminology | 10 | 10 |
Vocabulary | 10 | 10 |
Reading Comprehension | 15 | 15 |
Functional Grammar | 15 | 15 |
Total | 200 | 200 |
NAAC ‘A++’ Grade | AACSB Accredited | Ranked #7th best University | H-CTC 21.90 LPA | Avg CTC: 8.23 LPA
Admissions Open | Globally Recognized by AACSB (US) & AMBA (UK) | 17.3 LPA Avg. CTC for PGPM 2024 | Application Deadline: 1st Dec 2024
Before the candidates proceed to solve the ICET test sample papers, they must also check the TS ICET syllabus 2025 which has all the subjects and topics. Candidates can check the detailed syllabus of TS ICET in the table that is given below.
Section Name | Topics |
Analytical Ability |
|
Mathematical Ability |
|
|
Know more;
TS ICET 2025 preparation materials are essential for anyone aiming to do well on the exam. These materials usually include practice tests, previous years' question papers, and study guides that cover all the important topics like Analytical Ability, Mathematical Ability, and Communication Ability. They help you understand the exam pattern and the types of questions you might face. Some of the essential TS ICET 2025 preparation materials designed by Careers360 are given below:
TITLE | DOWNLOAD LINK |
TS ICET 2025 Sample Papers with Solutions | |
TS ICET 2025 Preparation Tips | |
All About TS ICET Entrance Exam and Counselling |
The TS ICET exam is of moderate difficulty. With consistent practice, it is possible to secure good marks in the exam.
It is possible to self-study for the TS ICET exam if you work hard and are consistent with your preparation.
Go through the syllabus and get a clear idea of the exam pattern and topics that come in the exam.
Study from books and online resources.
Solve questions from sample papers and previous years’ papers.
Take mock tests and analyze them to identify your strengths and weaknesses.
Revise the material regularly.
TS ICET exam pattern 2025 is divided into three sections-
Analytical Ability- 75 Questions
Mathematical Ability- 75 Questions
Communication Ability- 50 Questions
For every correct answer in the TS ICET exam, a candidate will get 1 mark and there is no negative marking for wrong answers.
The ICET is generally moderate in difficulty, so consistent effort and good time management can yield great results.
A score between 120 and 145 is typically enough to secure admission to top colleges. A 60 on the TS ICET might place you around rank 32,500 to 43,000.
Practicing previous papers helps you understand the exam format, question types, and marking scheme, building your confidence.
Past papers boost confidence, help analyze preparation, allow quick revision, and improve speed and accuracy.
Hello,
Yes, you may even withdraw your admission to a college even after you have paid admission charges with the help of TSICET. You could do so through the official cancellation procedure by writing to the concerned college where you wanted to take admission and enclosing necessary documents like the original admission receipt and any other paper work that such a college demands while initiating the refund procedures for fee. Generally refund policies will vary, so always check the specific guidelines of the institution from which you are seeking fee reimbursement.
Special Phase: If any candidate cancels his/her admission, then they can be considered for the counseling again in the special phase of TSICET counseling. This counseling will be done for the candidates who have not even gotten a seat during the earlier stages of counseling and even wish to upgrade their choice college. Please note down the timelines and other requirements so that they can get the better option available for them.
Hello aspirant,
Here below I am providing you with the name of some of the colleges:
Thank you
Hope it helps you
With a rank of 862 and belonging to the BC-C category in TS ICET (Telangana State Integrated Common Entrance Test), you have a strong chance of securing a seat in the MBA program at Osmania University (OU), Hyderabad.
### Key Factors:
1. **Category and Reservation**: Since you fall under the BC-C category, you benefit from reservation policies, which increase your chances of admission compared to the general category. Osmania University has reserved seats for various categories, and a rank within the top 1000 typically stands a good chance.
2. **Previous Cutoffs**: In recent years, Osmania University’s MBA cutoffs for the BC-C category have been higher than general category cutoffs, but a rank around 862 is competitive. The exact cutoff can vary slightly depending on factors like the number of applicants, seat availability, and reservation quotas.
3. **Counseling Process**: Attend the TS ICET counseling process, where seat allocation happens based on rank, category, and preferences. Make sure to list Osmania University as your top preference during counseling.
4. **Other Factors**: Keep your documents ready for verification and ensure timely participation in the counseling rounds to secure your seat.
Overall, with your rank and category, your chances of getting into Osmania University for an MBA are favorable.
For any state exam you need to provide state caste certificate to get advantage of reservation category.there is no provision for BC sub categories in central list of reservation candidates so you cannot use them for your tsicET exam in Telangana.if you belong to any of these categories and have relevant documents you can obtain caste certificate from telangana government.
A career as Marketing Director is also known as a marketing expert who is responsible for the overall marketing aspect of the company. He or she oversees plans and develops the company's budget. The marketing Director collaborates with the business team to plan and develop the marketing and branding strategies for the company's products or services.
A Business Development Executive (BDE) is a professional responsible for identifying growth opportunities and fostering strategic partnerships to enhance a company's market position. Typically, a BDE conducts market research, analyses industry trends, and identifies potential clients or business prospects. He or she plays a crucial role in developing and implementing sales strategies to achieve revenue targets.
A BDE often collaborates with cross-functional teams, including marketing and product development, to align business objectives. Strong communication, negotiation, and relationship-building skills are essential for success in this role. BDE strives to expand the company's customer base, drive sales, and contribute to overall organisational growth in a dynamic and competitive business environment.
Content Marketing Specialists are also known as Content Specialists. They are responsible for crafting content, editing and developing it to meet the requirements of digital marketing campaigns. To ensure that the material created is consistent with the overall aims of a digital marketing campaign, content marketing specialists work closely with SEO and digital marketing professionals.
A sales manager is a revenue-generating source for a company. Any organisation or company which sells a commodity or service requires sales to generate revenue. A Sales manager is a professional responsible for supervising the sales team. An Individual as a sales manager works closely with salespeople, assigns sales territories, sets quotas, mentors the members of the sales, assigns sales training, and builds a sales plan.
The Sales Manager work also includes hiring and laying off sales personnel after evaluating his or her work performance. In bigger entities, sales quotas and plans are usually set at the executive level. He or she is responsible for overseeing the set target or quotas met by salespeople or upholding any policy. He or she guides his or her fellow salespeople and allows them to sell.
Individuals who opt for a career as a business analyst look at how a company operates. He or she conducts research and analyses data to improve his or her knowledge about the company. This is required so that an individual can suggest the company strategies for improving their operations and processes.
In a business analyst job role a lot of analysis is done, things are learned from past mistakes and the successful strategies are enhanced further. A business analyst goes through real-world data in order to provide the most feasible solutions to an organisation. Students can pursue Business Analytics to become Business Analysts.
A marketing manager is a person who oversees a company or product marketing. He or she can be in charge of multiple programmes or goods or can be in charge of one product. He or she is enthusiastic, organised, and very diligent in meeting financial constraints. He or she works with other team members to produce advertising campaigns and decides if a new product or service is marketable.
A Marketing manager plans and executes marketing initiatives to create demand for goods and services and increase consumer awareness of them. A marketing manager prevents unauthorised statements and informs the public that the business is doing everything to investigate and fix the line of products. Students can pursue an MBA in Marketing Management courses to become marketing managers.
An SEO Analyst is a web professional who is proficient in the implementation of SEO strategies to target more keywords to improve the reach of the content on search engines. He or she provides support to acquire the goals and success of the client’s campaigns.
Digital marketing is growing, diverse, and is covering a wide variety of career paths. Each job function aids in the development of effective digital marketing strategies and techniques. The aims and objectives of the individuals who opt for a career as a digital marketing executive are similar to those of a marketing professional: to build brand awareness, promote company services or products, and increase conversions. Individuals who opt for a career as Digital Marketing Executives, unlike traditional marketing companies, communicate effectively through suitable technology platforms.
Admissions Open | Globally Recognized by AACSB (US) & AMBA (UK) | 17.3 LPA Avg. CTC for PGPM 2024 | Application Deadline: 1st Dec 2024
180+ Companies | Highest CTC 15 LPA | Average CTC 7.5 LPA | Ranked as Platinum Institute by AICTE for 6 years in a row | Awarded Best Business School of the Year
Passport to over 600+ B-Schools | Availed by lakhs of students | Wide acceptability of scores by hundreds of Business Schools and University Departments
UGC Approved Programs | 100% Placement Record | Up to 100% Scholarships | Highest CTC 21.74 LPA
Ranked 05th best University in India by NIRF 2024 | Highest CTC 35 LPA | Average CTC 11.4 LPA
9 IBS Campuses | Scholarships Worth Rs 10 CR