CMAT Mock Test 2025 - Exam Preparation & Online Test Series

The NTA conducts the CMAT test, which acts as an entrance requirement for management courses at universities with accreditation from the AICTE. NTA offers a CMAT mock exam to help students analyse the CMAT 2025 exam pattern and side by side boost the CMAT preparation strategy. The five components of the CMAT 2025 exam are Quantitative Techniques & Data Interpretation, Logical Reasoning, Language Comprehension, General Awareness, and Innovation & Entrepreneurship. It is structured similarly to the real exam. Career360 will help you practice the mock test, In this article, you will find similar questions for the practice mock test. Best of luck!

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This Story also Contains

1. CMAT Mock Test 2025 PDF Free Download
2. CMAT 2025 Mock Test Questions with Answers
3. CMAT 2025 Mock Test Dates
4. CMAT 2025 Mock Test Pattern
5. How to Access CMAT Mock Test 2025?
6. Points to Remember While Solving CMAT Mock Test Online
7. CMAT 2025 Mock Test: Key Features
8. CMAT 2025 Mock Test: Benefits of Solving
9. Browse MBA Colleges accepting CMAT score: Location-wise

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CMAT Mock Test 2025 PDF Free Download

Click Here to download the CMAT mock test 2025 free PDF with detailed solutions.

CMAT 2025 Mock Test Questions with Answers

Here are some CMAT mock test questions that will be helpful for practice.

QUANTITATIVE TECHNIQUES AND DATA INTERPRETATION

1. A train covers a certain distance in 210 minutes at a speed of 60 km/hr. The time taken by the train to cover the same distance at a speed of 80 km/hr is:

A. 3 5/8 hours

B. 2 5/8 hours

C. 4 5/8 hours

D. 3 hours

Correct Answer: B

Solution

Speed of train = 60 km/hr

Time = 210 minutes = 7/2 hours

Distance covered = 60 × 7/2 = 210 km

Time taken at 80 km/hr = 21/8 = 2 5/8 hours

Hence, the correct answer is 2 5/8 hours.

2. Two pipes can independently fill a bucket in 20 minutes and 25 minutes. Both are opened together for 5 minutes after which the second pipe is turned off. What is the time taken by the first pipe alone to fill the remaining portion of the bucket?

A. 11 minutes

B. 16 minutes

C. 20 minutes

D. 15 minutes

Correct Answer: A

Solution:

1 minute work of Pipe 1 = 1/20

1 minute work of Pipe 2 = 1/25

After 5 minutes of operation, the fraction of the work completed

= (1/20 + 1/25) * 5

= 9/100 * 5

= 9/20

Remaining tank = (1 - 9/20) = 11/20

The remaining tank will be filled by Pipe 1 alone with an efficiency of 1/20.

Thus, 11/20 ÷ 1/20 = 11 minutes

Hence, the correct answer is 11 minutes.

3. The base of a right prism is a right-angled triangle whose sides are 5 cm, 12 cm, and 13 cm. If the area of the total surface of the prism is 360 cm2, then its height (in cm) is:

A. 10 cm

B. 12 cm

C. 9 cm

D. 11 cm

Correct Answer: A

Solution

The area of the total surface of the prism = 360 cm2

The base of the right-angled triangle = 5 cm

The perpendicular of the right-angled triangle = 12 cm

Hypotenuse of the right-angled triangle = 13 cm

Perimeter of the base of the prism = (5 + 12 + 13) = 30 cm

82

Base area = 1/2 × base × perpendicular

= 1/2 × 5 × 12

= 30 cm2

Total surface area of the prism = (Perimeter of the base × height + 2 × base area)

360 = 30 × height + 2 × 30

Height = (360 - 60)/30 = 10 cm

Hence, the correct answer is 10 cm.

4. The least number that should be subtracted from the number 32146 to make it a perfect square is:

A. 305

B. 105

C. 205

D. 405

Correct Answer: B

Solution

Since, 179 times 179 equals 32041,

So, the square root of 32146 is greater than 179.

The number that must be subtracted to make it a perfect square is (32146 - 32041) equals 105.

Hence, the correct answer is 105.

5. The average number of runs scored by a player is 32 out of 10 innings. How many runs must he make in the next innings to increase his average by 6?

A. 38

B. 40

C. 6

D. 98

Correct Answer: D

Solution

Given:

Average runs = 32

Total innings = 10

According to the question,

Average runs = 32

Total runs = 32 × 10 = 320

Now the increase in average is 6 runs

So, the new average = 32 + 6 = 38 runs

Total runs = 38 × 11 = 418

Therefore, the runs made in the 11th inning = 418 - 320 = 98

Hence, the correct answer is 98.

LOGICAL REASONING

6. Directions: Find the odd word from the given responses.

A. Ink

B. Paper

C. Office

D. Pen

Correct Answer: C

Solution

Let's check the options –

First option: Ink; Ink is a stationery item.

Second option: Paper; Paper is a stationery item.

Third option: Office; Office is not a stationery item.

Fourth option: Pen; Pen is a stationery item.

So, from the given words, except office, all others are stationery items. Hence, the third option is correct.

7. Directions: In the following question, select the related number from the given alternatives.

7: 133:: 9:?

A. 147

B. 99

C. 171

D. 158

Correct Answer: C

Solution

Given:

7 : 133 :: 9 : ?

Like, 7 × 19 = 133

Similarly, 9 × 19 = 171

So, 171 is the required answer. Hence, the third option is correct.

8. Directions: The weights of 4 boxes are 90, 30, 20, and 50 kilograms. Which of the

following cannot be the total weight, in kilograms, of any combination of these boxes, and in combination a box can be used only once?

A. 190

B. 170

C. 100

D. 150

Correct Answer: D

Solution

Given:

The weights of 4 boxes are 90, 30, 20, and 50 kilograms.

The total weight of all possible combinations of boxes is as follows –

90 + 30 = 120; 90 + 20 = 110; 90 + 50 = 140; 30 + 20 = 50;

30 + 50 = 80; 20 + 50 = 70; 90 + 30 + 20 = 140;

90 + 30 + 50 = 170; 90 + 20 + 50 = 160; 30 + 20 + 50 = 100;

90 + 30 + 20 + 50 = 190

There is no total weight of 150 kilograms in any combination. Hence, the fourth option is correct.

9. Directions: Four letter clusters have been given out of which three are alike in some manner and one is different. Select the one that is different.

A. MPT

B. FIM

C. GJN

D. DGI

Correct Answer: D

Solution

Let's check the given options –

First option: MPT→M + 3 = P; P + 4 = T

Second option: FIM→F + 3 = I; I + 4 = M

Third option: GJN→G + 3 = J; J + 4 = N

Fourth option: DGI→D + 3 = G; G + 2 = I

So, only in the fourth option, the difference between the place values of the second and third letters is 2 instead of 4. Hence, the fourth option is correct.

10. Directions: In the following question, a series is given with one number missing. Select the missing number from the given alternatives.

49, 46, 43, 40, ?, 34

A. 38

B. 37

C. 36

D. 39

Correct Answer: B

Solution

Given:

49, 46, 43, 40, ?, 34

Here, subtract 3 from the previous number to get the next number.

49 – 3 = 46; 46 – 3 = 43; 43 – 3 = 40; 40 – 3 = 37; 37 – 3 = 34

37 is the missing number of the series. Hence, the second option is correct.

LANGUAGE COMPREHENSION

11. Select the most appropriate synonym for the word 'ephemeral' as used in the following context:

"The beauty of the cherry blossoms is ephemeral."

A) Lasting

B) Fleeting

C) Enduring

D) Eternal

Correct Answer: B

Solution

In the given sentence, 'ephemeral' refers to something short-lived or transient. The correct synonym is B) Fleeting.

12. Choose the properly constructed sentence:

A. She will finished her project by tomorrow.

B. She finishes her project by tomorrow.

C. She has finished her project by tomorrow.

D. She will finish her project by tomorrow.

Correct Answer: D

Solution

Option D is the right answer.

In a properly constructed sentence, the correct use of the future tense is required. "She will finish her project by tomorrow" is grammatically correct, indicating a future action that will be completed by a specified time.

13. Select the accurate interpretation of the given idiom:

Turn a blind eye

A. To refuse to acknowledge something intentionally.

B. To be vigilant and observant.

C. To quickly understand a complex situation.

D. To openly criticize someone or something.

Correct Answer: A

Solution

Option A is the accurate interpretation.

Turning a blind eye means to deliberately ignore or overlook something, often by choice or to avoid dealing with a particular situation.

14. Choose the incorrectly spelt word.

A. Benigin

B. Mortifeid

C. Insecurities

D. Dismay

Correct Answer: A

Solution

Option A contains the incorrectly spelled word "Benigin." The accurate spelling is "Benign."

15. Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word.

Technology plays an indispensable role in the lives of human beings in the 21st century.

A. Superfluous

B. Relentless

C. Vigilant

D. Unprecedented

Correct Answer: A

Solution

The right answer is option A, Superfluous. The word "indispensable" suggests something essential or necessary, and its antonym, "Superfluous," means unnecessary or excessive. In this context, technology is portrayed as crucial, making "Superfluous" the most fitting opposite.

GENERAL AWARENESS

16. What is the total strength of the Rajya Sabha?

A. 250

B. 260

C. 270

D. 280

Correct Answer: A

Solution

The Rajya Sabha has a maximum capacity of 250 members, as stated in Article 80 of the Indian Constitution. A third of the 233 members are elected every two years, specifically in years with even numbers, for six-year staggered terms with votes held annually.

17. Which of the following book was written by Aryabhata?

A. Dhatupatha

B. Aryabhatiya

C. Natya Shastra

D. Romaka Siddhanta

Correct Answer: B

Solution

The correct option is Aryabhatiya.

Aryabhatiya was written by Aryabhata, an ancient Indian mathematician and astronomer.

Aryabhatiya is a Sanskrit astronomical treatise that provides insights into mathematical and astronomical concepts. Aryabhata, who lived in the 5th century CE, made significant contributions to mathematics and astronomy. The Aryabhatiya covers various topics, including arithmetic, algebra, trigonometry and the calculation of planetary positions. It is considered one of the works in Indian mathematics and astronomy.

18. Which of the following is NOT a classification of E-Commerce?

A. B2C (Business-to-Consumer)

B. D2D (Distributor-to-Distributor)

C. C2C (Consumer-to-Consumer)

D. B2B (Business-to-Business)

Correct Answer: B

Solution

The correct answer is D2D (Distributor-to-Distributor).

"Distributor-to-Distributor" (D2D) is not a conventional classification in e-commerce. The standard classifications include B2C (Business-to-Consumer), where businesses sell to individual consumers C2C (Consumer-to-Consumer), involving direct consumer-to-consumer transactions and B2B (Business-to-Business) for transactions between businesses. Although distribution channels are vital, the common e-commerce categories revolve around direct interactions between businesses and consumers, not specifically between distributors.

19. Sultan Mahmud of Ghazni was a contemporary of which Chola king?

A. Rajaraja I

B. Rajendra II

C. Rajadhiraja I

D. Rajendra I

Correct Answer: D

Solution

The correct answer is Rajendra I Sultan Mahmud of Ghazni, a prominent ruler of the Ghaznavid Empire, was a contemporary of the Chola king Rajendra Chola I. He was one of the powerful Chola monarchs and ruled the Chola dynasty in South India during the 11th century. The Chola period, including Rajendra I's reign, is considered a golden age in terms of art, literature, and architecture in South India.

20. Ahom tribes is from which of the following states of India?

A. Assam

B. Andhra Pradesh

C. Madhya Pradesh

D. Jharkhand

Correct Answer: A

Solution

Ahom is a tribe that lives in the Assam Valley and was the dominant race in the area until the Burmese invasion at the start of the 19th century. Between the 13th century and 1838, when British authority was established, they controlled a large portion of Assam. This group's members are admixed descendants of the Tai people, who arrived in Assam's Brahmaputra Valley, and the indigenous inhabitants of the area who eventually joined them.

INNOVATION AND ENTREPRENEURSHIP

21. In terms of wealth creation, what role do successful entrepreneurs play?

A) They hinder economic well-being

B) They accumulate wealth for personal use only

C) They contribute to overall economic well-being by reinvesting wealth

D) They solely focus on profit for themselves

Correct Answer: C

Solution

Successful entrepreneurs not only accumulate wealth for themselves but also reinvest it back into the economy. This reinvestment supports the growth of other businesses, job creation, and overall economic well-being.

22. What is a key benefit of entrepreneurs introducing competition into the market?

A) Reduced efficiency

B) Limited product choices for consumers

C) Improved products and services

D) Decreased innovation

Correct Answer: C

Solution

Competition motivates entrepreneurs to enhance the quality of their products and services. To stay competitive, businesses are driven to innovate, leading to improved offerings and better choices for consumers.

23. What is the primary objective of MUDRA Yojana?

A. Encouraging large corporations

B. Promoting entrepreneurship and supporting micro-enterprises

C. Facilitating international trade

D. Funding medium-sized enterprises

Correct Answer: B

Solution

The primary objective of MUDRA Yojana is to promote entrepreneurship and provide financial support to micro-enterprises. It aims to fund the unfunded by providing assistance to small and micro-businesses that often lack access to formal credit.

24. What is the primary role of innovation in entrepreneurship?

A. Reducing competition

B. Creating and implementing novel ideas for positive change

C. Minimizing risk

D. Enhancing customer satisfaction

Correct Answer: B.

Solution

Innovation in entrepreneurship involves the process of generating and implementing new ideas, products, or services that result in positive changes for the business.

25. What is the first phase of the entrepreneurial process?

A. Feasibility Analysis

B. Business Planning

C. Idea Generation

D. Implementation

Correct Answer: C

Solution

The entrepreneurial process typically begins with idea generation. Entrepreneurs identify a business idea inspired by personal passion, market needs, or a gap in existing products or services.

CMAT 2025 Mock Test Dates

Candidates who wish to attend the CMAT 2025 mock test free can visit the NTA official website. So candidates need to gear up and attempt the NTA CMAT mock test. Interested candidates should check the NTA website for official updates on the NTA CMAT mock test and other CMAT exam dates.

CMAT 2025 Mock Test Dates

CMAT 2025 Mock Test Pattern

The CMAT mock exam is based on the actual CMAT 2025 exam pattern, i.e., it has five sections: Quantitative Techniques and Data Interpretation, Logical Reasoning, Language Comprehension, General Awareness, and Innovation and Entrepreneurship.

CMAT 2025 Sectional Mock Test Pattern

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How to Access CMAT Mock Test 2025?

The steps to take the free CMAT mock test on the official website of NTA are as follows:

Step 1 - Click on the official link - nta.ac.in. On this page click on the ‘CMAT Mock Test Free’ tab

Step 2 - You will be directed to a page where on the right-hand side first select the exam you would like to appear. Next, click on the ‘Paper’. Finally, tap on ‘Start Mock Test’.

Step 3 - Details of the candidate

A screen will appear displaying the following details on the top of the screen:

• System name

• Candidate Name

• Subject name

Login on the given page using your user ID and password. Click ‘Login’ to proceed.

Step 4 - Instructions page

Once the candidates click on the login tab, they will be directed to the instructions page of the CMAT mock test. On this page, each color scheme will indicate what are the questions that have been answered by the candidates, which have not been answered by the candidates how many of them are marked for review, and how many are answered and marked for review.

Click on the small checkbox and then tap on the green button to ‘Proceed’.

Step 5 - Commencement of NTA CMAT Mock Test 2025

Once the candidates have clicked on “I am ready to begin” the free CMAT mock test will begin. Candidates will have to answer the question skip the question or mark it for review. After that do not forget to click on the “Save and next” button. There is no option of navigating between sections but candidates can navigate between questions as they are given together. So they can attempt any question from any section they wish to.

Points to Remember While Solving CMAT Mock Test Online

• CMAT exam will have multiple choice questions for candidates who are given 180 minutes of time.

• No time limit for each section.

• Candidates can move from one section to another within the overall time limit in the CMAT 2025.

CMAT 2025 Mock Test: Key Features

On-Screen Timer: Attempting for the CMAT mock test, you will come across an on-screen timer placed on the top corner of the computer screen. The timer clock helps students in figuring out how much time is left to complete the entire CMAT mock test paper which has a duration of three hours. Candidates can divide their time likewise for each question.

Switching between sections: Candidates have the option to switch between different sections and questions according to their ease in the CMAT 2025 mock test. Furthermore, they can attempt any section first.

No sectional time limit: The CMAT 2025 exam does not have a feature of sectional limit. So while attempting CMAT mock tests or the actual test paper candidates can give time to one section according to one’s own preference.

Reviewing Option: While practicing for the CMAT mock test free, candidates have the option to review the answers that they have marked in the exam paper in case the time is left.

CMAT 2025 Mock Test: Benefits of Solving

• Candidates will be able to familiarize themselves with the screens, layout, and navigation as these NTA CMAT mock tests replicate the actual CMAT 2025 exam.

• Get the real test feel with respect to time management and test-taking strategy with the help of the CMAT mock test.

• Know your strong and weak areas and act accordingly.

• Identify the topics under different areas to brush up on before the exam.

• Time management is the key to CMAT and the greatest benefit of the CMAT mock test is that it will help you in developing speed and accuracy in solving the questions.

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