CMAT Previous Year Question Papers 2025, 2024, 2023, 2022 With Solutions; Download PDFs

CMAT Previous Year Question Papers - The CMAT exam is one of India's most popular management entrance exams along with CAT, XAT, SNAP and NMAT. It is estimated that more than 50,000 candidates appear for the CMAT exam making it extremely fierce. As these are the last few for CMAT 2026 preparation, the candidates will always be in search of the best CMAT preparation resources to ensure that their CMAT exam preparation is holistic. Solving the CMAT previous year's question paper is an important CMAT preparation strategy. This article of Careers360 focuses solely on the CMAT previous year’s question papers and their significance.

CMAT 2026: Innovation and Entrepreneurship: All Chapters with Sample Questions

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This Story also Contains

1. CMAT 2026 Question Paper Pattern
2. CMAT Previous Year Question Papers
3. CMAT Previous Year Questions Papers: Why Should You Solve Them?
4. CMAT Previous Year Papers: How to Solve Them?
5. CMAT 2026 Sample Questions
6. CMAT Exam Preparation Materials

Latest: Download CMAT Previous Year Question Papers with Answers PDF

CMAT 2026 Question Paper Pattern

The Common Management Aptitude Test or the CMAT examination is conducted by the National Testing Agency (NTA). In the CMAT question paper, the candidates will be asked a total of 100 questions spanning across 5 sections. The detailed CMAT exam pattern is given below for the reference of the candidates.

CMAT 2026 Sectional Breakup

Given below is the CMAT exam 2026 sectional breakup that involves all the CMAT exam sections that would appear in the CMAT exam 2026.

CMAT Question Paper 2026 : Key Highlights

• Each question carries 4 marks. For the questions left unattempted, no marks will be provided.

• The CMAT question paper has gone through various changes in the past years. In the CMAT exam 2021, Innovation and Entrepreneurship was introduced as an optional paper with 30 additional minutes given to solve the section. However, since 2022, Innovation and Entrepreneurship has been a compulsory section in the CMAT question paper.

• Initially, the CMAT question paper had 25 questions asked from each of the four sections; Quantitative Techniques and Data Interpretation, Logical Reasoning, and General Awareness. But now with the introduction of the Innovation and Entrepreneurship section, the number of questions reduced from 25 to 20 in each section maintaining the the total number of questions fixed at 100 questions.

• There are no choices available in the CMAT 2026 question paper.

• The scores obtained by the candidates in Innovation and Entrepreneurship are used by NTA for the CMAT percentile score calculation and merit list preparation.

• There will be no sectional time limits in the CMAT exam 2026, this allows the candidates to freely navigate between the sections of the CMAT exam 2026.

CMAT Previous Year Question Papers

Solving the CMAT previous year question paper is of utmost importance for the CMAT 2026 aspirants. The candidates should ensure that they solve as many of CMAT previous year question papers as possible. This helps them to assess their preparation level and understand the CMAT exam much better. A set of CMAT previous year’s papers is given below for the reference of the candidates to enhance their CMAT 2026 preparation.

CMAT Previous Year Questions Papers: Why Should You Solve Them?

There are various reasons why a candidate should solve the CMAT previous years papers. From understanding the CMAT exam pattern to getting CMAT exam ready, the reasons are many. Some of the most important factors are listed below for the reference of the candidates.

Understanding the CMAT Exam Pattern: When the candidates engage themselves in solving the different CMAT previous year question papers, it helps them to understand the CMAT exam pattern much better. These papers provide valuable insights into the exam's structure, the type of questions asked, and the difficulty level.

Understanding the most important CMAT Topics: With each practice of the CMAT question paper, the candidates will be able to shortlist the various important topics of the CMAT exam. With the help of the CMAT previous year’s question papers, the candidates can perform a CMAT analysis. This will help them to find the most important CMAT topics across the sections. Prioritising these sections will help the candidates secure a better CMAT score.

Assessing the Strengths and Weaknesses: By solving the CMAT exam previous year questions, the candidates can understand their strengths and weaknesses. After solving the CMAT previous year question papers, the candidates should go through the CMAT previous year paper analysis and use this to map their responses. This will help them to understand the areas where they lack preparation. Spending more time in this section will enable them to score better in this section ultimately helping them to secure a good CMAT score.

Enhancing time management skills: Solving the CMAT previous year's question papers can help the candidates to improve their time management skills. With each practice of the CMAT previous year question papers, the efficiency of the candidate increases, this will help them to solve the questions in less time when compared with the previous attempts. Through this, they will be able to enhance their overall time management skills.

CMAT Previous Year Papers: How to Solve Them?

Given below are a few tips that the candidates should keep in mind while solving the CMAT previous year question papers to bring the most out of their CMAT 2026 preparation.

• Solve the CMAT previous year question papers in a quiet and distraction-free environment. Try to avoid sitting beside a window.

• Using a timer and adhering to the time constraints is also very essential to improve the time management skills of the candidates. The time limit for the CMAT examination is 3 hours and the candidates should follow this while answering the questions as well.

• The candidates should not leave the CMAT question papers after finishing them. They should also take part in the CMAT analysis and ensure that the questions they make a note of unattempted and incorrect answers and analyze the reasons behind those mistakes. Regularly revisiting and practising such questions can help strengthen weak areas. The candidates are also advised to attempt as many CMAT sample papers and CMAT mock tests as possible.

• It is a good practice to maintain a record of the scores obtained by the candidates as this can help them to see their improvements over time. This can motivate the candidates to perform better in the CMAT exam.

• Lastly, ensure that the candidates solve a variety of CMAT previous year question papers. This can help them to reveal patterns in the type of questions asked, helping them strategize better for the actual CMAT exam.

CMAT 2026 Sample Questions

QUANTITATIVE TECHNIQUES AND DATA INTERPRETATION

1. The average of three consecutive even numbers is A. If the next five even numbers are added, what is the average of these eight numbers?

1. A + 3

2. A + 4

3. A + 5

4. A + 7

Let (x - 2), x, and (x + 2) be the three consecutive even numbers.

Average = A = middle term = x

Let the next five consecutive even numbers added be (x + 4), (x + 6), (x + 8), (x + 10), and (x + 12)

Then numbers are (x - 2), x, (x + 2), (x + 4), (x + 6), (x + 8), (x + 10), (x + 12)

Average = Average of two middle terms = (x + 4 + x + 6) / 2 = x + 5 = A + 5

Hence, the correct answer is A + 5.

2. The mean of marks secured by 50 students in Division A of class X is 61, 25 students in Division B is 57 and that of 50 students in Division C is 55. What will be the mean marks of the students of the three divisions of Class X?

1. 57.1

2. 56.4

3. 59.2

4. 57.8

Given: The mean of marks secured by 50 students in Division A of Class X is 61, for 25 students in Division B is 57, and that of 50 students in Division C is 55.

Formula used: Average = Total marks secured by all the students / Number of Students

Calculation: Total marks secured by 50 students in division A of Class X = 50 × 61 = 3050

Total marks secured by 25 students in division B of Class X = 25 × 57 = 1425

Total marks secured by 50 students in division C of Class X = 50 × 55 = 2750

Total marks secured by all the students of Class X = 3050 + 1425 + 2750 = 7225

The mean of the marks of three divisions of Class X = 7225 / (50 + 25 + 50) = 7225 / 125 = 57.8

Therefore, the mean of marks of three divisions of Class X = 57.8.

3. Simplify the given expression.

15 – (–5) × {4 – (7 – 3)} ÷ [3 × {5 + (–3) × (–6)}]

1. 21

2. 15

3. 88

4. 125

Given: 15 – (–5) × {4 – (7 – 3)} ÷ [3 × {5 + (–3) × (–6)}]

= 15 – (–5) × {4 – (4)} ÷ [3 × {5 +18}]

= 15 – (–5) × {0} ÷[3 × {23}]

= 15 – (–5) × {0} ÷[69]

= 15 – (–5) × {0}

= 15

Hence, the correct answer is 15.

4. Which of the following numbers is divisible by 99?

1. 31548

2. 60687

3. 44775

4. 84456

If a number is divisible by 99, then it must be divisible by 11 and 9 both, because 99 = 11 × 9

To check the divisibility by 11 we have to check the difference of the sum of odd place digits and the sum of even place digits.

If the result is 0 or a multiple of 11, then the number is divisible by 11.

To check the divisibility by 9, the sum of digits must be multiple of 9.

60687: Sum of odd place digits – Sum of even place digits = (6 + 6 + 7) – (0 + 8) = 11, which is divisible by 11.

Also, the sum of all digits = 6 + 0 + 6 + 8 + 7 = 27, which is divisible by 9.

So, 60687 will be divisible by 99.

Hence, the correct answer is 60687.

5. Find the remainder when 88 + 6 is divided by 7.

1. 0

2. 2

3. 3

4. 1

To find the remainder of 8^{8} + 6 when divided by 7,

When 88 is divided by 7, the remainder =(8⁸) / 7 → R = 1⁸ = 1 (where R is the remainder)

⇒ 8^{8} + 6→R(1+6)→R(7)

When 7 is divided by 7, there is no remainder.

Hence, the remainder will be 0.

LOGICAL REASONING

6. Directions: If A – B means that A is the father of B, A + B means that A is the mother of B, A × B means that A is the brother of B then which of the following expressions shows that Q is the brother of P?

1. P × Q – R

2. P × Q + R

3. R + P × Q

4. Q – P × R

A – B means that A is the father of B
A + B means that A is the mother of B
A × B means that A is the brother of B

Let's check the given options –
First option: P × Q – R
According to the given expression, the family tree will be as follows –

Here, the quadrilateral represents the male and the circular figure represents the female in the figure. From the above family tree, it is evident that Q is the brother of P.Second option: P × Q + R
According to the given expression, the family tree will be as follows –

Here, the quadrilateral represents the male and the circular figure represents the female in the figure. From the above family tree, it is evident that Q is the sister of P.Third option: R + P × Q
According to the given expression, the family tree will be as follows –

Here, the quadrilateral represents the male and the circular figure represents the female in the figure. From the above family tree, it is evident that the gender of Q is undefined; Q can either be the sister or brother of P.Fourth option: Q – P × R
According to the given expression, the family tree will be as follows –

Here, the quadrilateral represents the male and the circular figure represents the female in the figure. From the above family tree, it is evident that Q is the father of P.

So, only the expression in the first option satisfies the relation given in the question. Hence, the first option is correct.

7. Directions: If L × M means that L is the mother of M, L + M means that L is the father of M, L ÷ M means that L is the sister of M, then which of the following expressions shows that P is the father of R?

1. P + Q ÷ R

2. P ÷ R + Q

3. Q + P ÷ R

4. P + Q × R

Let's check the given options –
First option: P + Q ÷ R
According to the given expression, the family tree will be as follows –

Here, the quadrilateral represents male and the circular figure represents female. From the above family tree, it is evident that P is the father of R.Second option: P ÷ R + Q
According to the given expression, the family tree will be as follows –

Here, the quadrilateral represents male and the circular figure represents female. From the above family tree, it is evident that P is the sister of R.Third option: Q + P ÷ R
According to the given expression, the family tree will be as follows –

Here, the quadrilateral represents male and the circular figure represents female. From the above family tree, it is evident that P is the sister of R.Fourth option: P + Q × R
According to the given expression, the family tree will be as follows –

Here, the quadrilateral represents male and the circular figure represents female. From the above family tree, it is evident that P is the maternal grandfather of R.

So, only the expression in the first option satisfies the relation given in the question. Hence, the first option is correct.

8. Directions: Which of the following letters will replace the question mark (?) and complete the following letter series?

Q, O, M, K, I, G, ?

1. D

2. F

3. G

4. E

Given:
Q, O, M, K, I, G, ?

Subtract 2 from each term to get the next term of the series.
Q - 2 = O
O - 2 = M
M - 2 = K
K - 2 = I
I - 2 = G
G - 2 = E

So, the next term of the series is E. Hence, the fourth option is correct.

9. Directions: Which of the following numbers will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?

286, 192, 263, 176, 240, 160, 217, 144, ?

1. 186

2. 194

3. 165

4. 190

Given:
286, 192, 263, 176, 240, 160, 217, 144, ?

Subtract 23 from numbers in odd positions and 16 from even position numbers –
Odd position → 286 – 23 = 263; 263 – 23 = 240; 240 – 23 = 217; 217 – 23 = 194
Even position → 192 – 16 = 176; 176 – 16 = 160; 160 – 16 = 144

So, 194 is the missing term in the series. Hence, the second option is correct.

10. Directions: A series is given with one term missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

ABNC, HGWN, OLFY, VQOJ, ?

1. TDMR

2. CMRQ

3. CVXU

4. CNTD

Given:
ABNC, HGWN, OLFY, VQOJ, ?

Add 7, 5, 9, and 11 to the first, second, third, and fourth letters respectively to find the next term of the series.
ABNC → A + 7 = H; B + 5 = G; N + 9 = W; C + 11 = N
HGWN → H + 7 = O; G + 5 = L; W + 9 = F; N + 11 = Y
OLFY → O + 7 = V; L + 5 = Q; F + 9 = O; Y + 11 = J
VQOJ → V + 7 = C; Q + 5 = V; O + 9 = X; J + 11 = U

So, the next term is CVXU. Hence, the third option is correct.

LANGUAGE COMPREHENSION

11. Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the sentences in the correct order to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph.

A. But the question that perturbs Ruskin's mind is what social pressure can be exercised against a dishonest person.
B. The merchant, for instance, must supply perfect and pure things to the people.
C. Ruskin believes that in every civilised society, there exist five intellectual professions, namely the soldier, the pastor, the physician, the lawyer and the merchant.
D. Persons belonging to these professions are expected to perform their duty honestly.

A. BACD

B. DABC

C. CDBA

D. ABDC

The most appropriate choice is the third option, i.e., CDBA.

The paragraph starts with sentence C, which introduces the central idea that Ruskin categorises certain professions as intellectual professions within society, followed by sentence D, as it logically follows the previous sentence by establishing an expectation that individuals in these professions should conduct their responsibilities with honesty and integrity. It is followed by sentence B, which elaborates on the expectations placed upon one of these professions (the merchant) in providing high-quality, untainted products to society. Sentence A concludes the paragraph by raising a question about how society can enforce honesty among individuals who may fail to meet the ethical standards expected in their professions.

12. Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the sentences in the correct order to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph.

A. And also, they contribute to the development of social and environmental solutions for the planet's future.

B. Companies do play an important role in modern society.

C. Because of their systematic relevance and their impact on policy-making, companies must use their influence in ways that benefit the public good.

D. Some corporations have become so large that their activities and strategic decisions have a direct impact on government policy and citizens' lives.

1. DCAB

2. DBCA

3. ADCB

4. BDCA

Explanation: The paragraph starts with a general statement about the role of companies in modern society (sentence B), then discusses the impact and responsibility of large corporations (sentence D), and emphasises the need for these companies to use their influence for the public good (sentence C). It ends by mentioning their contribution to social and environmental solutions (sentence A).

13. Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the sentences in the correct order to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph.

A. After examining these three approaches carefully I crossed the bridge and examined the Kedarnath pilgrim road for half a mile.
B. There were three approaches to the bridge; one from the north, one from the south and between these two a well-beaten footpath from the Rudraprayag bazaar.
C. Satisfied that the leopard had not crossed the river, I determined to put in operation my plan for closing the two bridges at night and thus confining the leopard to my side of the river.
D. Next, I examined the footpath on which three nights previously my goat had been killed.

A. DABC

B. CDAB

C. ABCD

D. BADC

The correct choice is the fourth option, i.e., BADC.

The paragraph starts with sentence B, which introduces the setting and describes the different paths leading to the bridge, followed by sentence A, which follows the introduction of the approaches and describes the action taken by the speaker to examine the Kedarnath pilgrim road, followed by sentence D, which follows the exploration of the Kedarnath pilgrim road and adds detail about the speaker's investigation into the footpath where an incident had occurred, and lastly, sentence C, which concludes the paragraph by mentioning the speaker's plan to prevent the leopard from crossing the river, based on the investigations and examinations done previously.

14. Describe how you will tell your parents that Suraj is loved by Siva in an active voice.

1. Siva is been loving Suraj.

2. Suraj loved Siva.

3. Siva loves Suraj.

4. Siva were loving Suraj.

The correct choice is the third option, i.e., "Siva loves Suraj."

The original passive sentence is in the present simple tense. In the active voice, the tense remains the same. Active voice is the voice in which the subject is the doer. The structure of the active voice sentence follows: "Subject (S) + Verb (V) + Object (O)". The verb "loves" is used to maintain the present simple tense . In active voice, the subject of the passive sentence becomes the object of the sentence.

15. Select the correct indirect form of the given sentence.

Madhurima explained, “I am planning to quit my graduation.”

1. Madhurima explained that she were planning to quit her graduation.

2. Madhurima explained that she planned to quit her graduation.

3. Madhurima explained that she was planning to quit her graduation.

4. Madhurima explained that she had been planning to quit her graduation.

The third option is the correct answer.

When converting direct speech to indirect speech, we often need to shift the tense. In this case, the present continuous tense "am planning" is changed to the past continuous tense "was planning." The structure for indirect speech often involves using "that" to introduce the reported speech, and the pronouns are adjusted accordingly, replacing "I" with "she."

Therefore, the correct answer is, "Madhurima explained that she was planning to quit her graduation."

GENERAL AWARENESS

16. The term 'Straight drive' is related to which of the following sports?

1. Hockey

2. Cricket

3. Football

4. Badminton

The correct answer is Cricket

The term straight drive is related to the game of cricket. It is a shot that is made by striking the ball in a straight line while using the entire bat's face. It is one of the finest shots ever executed by a batsman in a cricket match. A deliberate shot is taken to hit the ball along the ground to avoid being caught off guard.

17. FTX Crypto Cup is associated with which of the following sports events?

1. Snooker

2. Chess

3. Billiards

4. Golf

The correct option is Chess

The FTX Crypto Cup is associated with the sport of chess. It is a prestigious online chess tournament that features some of the world's top chess players competing for a significant prize fund. The tournament is organized by the chess platform Chess.com and sponsored by FTX, a cryptocurrency exchange.

18. Which algorithm is used to decide the path to transfer the packets from source to destination?

1. Routing

2. Pathing

3. Selecting

4. Directing

The correct answer is Routing

A routing algorithm is the method that determines the best way to transfer packets from source to destination. Routers employ routing algorithms to find the optimum path for packets to take to their destination

19. In 1526, the battle of Panipat was fought between ______.

1. Babur and Rana Sanga

2. Akbar and Hemu

3. Humayun and Sher Khan

4. Babur and Ibrahim Lodi

In 1526, the Battle of Panipat took place, pitting Babur, the Mughal Empire's founder, against Ibrahim Lodi, the Delhi Sultan. Babur, with ancestral ties to Timur and Genghis Khan, sought to establish his rule in India, overcoming opposition from Ibrahim Lodi. Ultimately, Babur's forces prevailed in this pivotal battle, paving the way for the establishment of the Mughal Empire in India.

20. In which of the following years was the Indian National Congress split into two groups named Moderates and Extremists?

1. 1895

2. 1899

3. 1907

4. 1904

The correct option is 1907.

The split between moderates and extremists within the Indian National Congress occurred during the Surat Session of 1907. The division emerged due to ideological differences and varying approaches towards achieving political goals.

The Moderates, led by leaders like Gopal Krishna Gokhale, advocated for a gradual and constitutional approach to achieve self-governance within the British Empire. On the other hand, the extremists, led by leaders like Bal Gangadhar Tilak, Bipin Chandra Pal, and Lala Lajpat Rai, adopted more radical and assertive methods, including mass agitation and non-cooperation.

INNOVATION AND ENTREPRENEURSHIP

21. What does entrepreneurship involve primarily?

A) Employee management

B) Designing, launching, and operating a new business venture

C) Government policymaking

D) Academic research

B) Designing, launching, and operating a new business venture

Explanation: Entrepreneurship encompasses the entire process of conceptualising, developing, and managing a new business. This involves designing the business model, launching it in the market, and actively operating and sustaining it.

22.How do entrepreneurs contribute to economic development?

A) By avoiding risks

B) By maintaining the status quo

C) By introducing new ideas, products, and services

D) By avoiding competition

C) By introducing new ideas, products, and services

Explanation: Entrepreneurs drive economic development by bringing innovation to the market. Their introduction of new ideas, products, and services stimulates economic growth, fosters competition, and creates job opportunities.

23. In terms of wealth creation, what role do successful entrepreneurs play?

A) They hinder economic well-being

B) They accumulate wealth for personal use only

C) They contribute to overall economic well-being by reinvesting wealth

D) They solely focus on profit for themselves

C) They contribute to overall economic well-being by reinvesting wealth

Explanation: Successful entrepreneurs not only accumulate wealth for themselves but also reinvest it back into the economy. This reinvestment supports the growth of other businesses, job creation, and overall economic well-being.

24. What is a key benefit of entrepreneurs introducing competition into the market?

A) Reduced efficiency

B) Limited product choices for consumers

C) Improved products and services

D) Decreased innovation

C) Improved products and services

Explanation: Competition motivates entrepreneurs to enhance the quality of their products and services. To stay competitive, businesses are driven to innovate, leading to improved offerings and better choices for consumers.

25. Why are adaptability and persistence important characteristics for entrepreneurs?

A) To maintain the status quo

B) To avoid challenges

C) To respond to changing market conditions and overcome failures

D) To avoid taking risks

C) To respond to changing market conditions and overcome failures

Explanation: The business landscape is dynamic, with constant changes and challenges. Entrepreneurs need to adapt to evolving market conditions and persist in the face of failures to achieve long-term success.

CMAT Exam Preparation Materials

The candidates are requested to download and study the other various CMAT preparation materials designed by Careers360 for the comprehensive CMAT 2026 preparation of the candidates.