CAT 2024: Exclusive First Look at Possible Questions

CAT 2024 will be conducted on November 24, 2024. IIM Calcutta will conduct the CAT exam this year. The CAT 2024 is the top management entrance exam in the country. The CAT exam scores are accepted by IIMs and other top Bschools across the nation. The CAT exam is held once every year. The official CAT 2024 notification will be released tentatively by July 29, 2024. This article in depth discusses the latest CAT exam pattern, marking scheme, and possible questions for different sections of the CAT 2024 exam.

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This Story also Contains

1. Possible Questions in CAT 2024: Section-Wise
2. CAT 2024 Exam Pattern
3. Possible Questions for the VARC Section in CAT 2024

Possible Questions in CAT 2024: Section-Wise

There is no pre-defined syllabus for CAT 2024, making it difficult for candidates to prepare for the IIM entrance exam. Candidates are advised to refer to previous questions, understand past trends, and solve model papers to learn about important CAT topics. Analyzing previous CAT question trends is a time-consuming and difficult task. To make it easier, this article on Careers360 brings you possible questions and important topics for CAT 2024 preparation.

Possible questions for CAT 2024 will be very helpful to get a good percentile in the IIM CAT. If a candidate is looking for CAT DLIR possible topics, then they can directly go to that section below, which is given section-wise. Apart from that, candidates will learn important CAT exam tips and tricks to prepare for the Common Entrance Test (CAT).

Check out the CAT question paper pdf from 1991 to 2023

CAT 2024 Exam Pattern

The CAT 2024 exam is most likely to have three sections, namely, Verbal Ability and Reading Comprehension, Data Interpretation and Logical Reasoning, and Quantitative Aptitude. The detailed CAT 2024 exam pattern and marking scheme are explained in the table below.

CAT Related Articles:

Possible Questions for the VARC Section in CAT 2024

The Verbal Ability & Reading Comprehension (VARC) section of the CAT exam contains 24 questions. The time limit for this section is 40 minutes. Candidates can expect the difficulty level to be between easy and moderate for this section. The possible questions for VARC in CAT 2024 based on the previous CAT exams of 2023, 2022, and 2021 are given below.

The passage below is accompanied by a set of questions. Choose the best answer to each question.

Today we can hardly conceive of ourselves without being unconscious. Yet between 1700 and 1900, this notion developed as a genuinely original thought. The "unconscious" burst the shell of conventional language, coined as it had been to embody the fleeting ideas and the shifting conceptions of several generations until, finally, it became fixed and defined in specialized terms within the realm of medical psychology and Freudian psychoanalysis.

The vocabulary concerning the soul and the mind increased enormously in the course of the nineteenth century. The enrichments of literary and intellectual language led to an altered understanding of the meanings that underlie time-honored expressions and traditional catchwords. At the same time, once coined, powerful new ideas attracted to themselves a whole host of seemingly unrelated issues, practices, and experiences, creating a peculiar network of preoccupations that as a group had not existed before.

The drawn-out attempt to approach and define the unconscious brought together the spiritualist and the psychical researcher of borderline phenomena (such as apparitions, spectral illusions, haunted houses, mediums, trance, automatic writing); the psychiatrist or alienist probing the nature of mental disease, of abnormal ideation, hallucination, delirium, melancholia, and mania; the surgeon performing operations with the aid of hypnotism; the magnetizer claiming to correct the disequilibrium in the universal flow of magnetic fluids but soon came to be regarded as a clever manipulator of the imagination; the physiologist and the physician who puzzled oversleep, dreams, sleepwalking, anesthesia, the influence of the mind on the body in health and disease; the neurologist concerned with the functions of the brain and the physiological basis of mental life; the philosopher interested in the will, emotions, consciousness, knowledge, imagination and the creative genius; and, last but not least, the psychologist.

Significantly, most, if not all of these practices (for example, hypnotism in surgery or psychological magnetism) originated in the waning years of the eighteenth century and during the early decades of the nineteenth century, as did some of the disciplines (such as psychology and psychical research). The majority of topics too were either new or assumed hitherto unknown colors. Thus, before 1790, few if any spoke, in medical terms, of the affinity between creative genius and the hallucinations of the insane . . .

Striving vaguely and independently to give expression to a latent conception, various lines of thought can be brought together by some novel term. The new concept then serves as a kind of resting place or stocktaking in the development of ideas, giving satisfaction and a stimulus for further discussion or speculation. Thus, the massive introduction of the term unconscious by Hartmann in 1869 appeared to focalize many stray thoughts, affording a temporary feeling that a crucial step had been taken forward, a comprehensive knowledge gained, a knowledge that required only further elaboration, explication, and unfolding to bring in a bounty of higher understanding. Ultimately, Hartmann's attempt at defining the unconscious proved fruitless because he extended its reach into every realm of organic and inorganic, spiritual, intellectual, and instinctive existence, severely diluting the precision and compromising the impact of the concept.

Question 1- Which one of the following sets of words is closest to mapping the main arguments of the passage?

A. Imagination; Magnetism; Psychiatry.

B. Unconscious; Latent conception; Dreams.

C. Language; Unconscious; Psychoanalysis.

D. Literary language; Unconscious; Insanity.

Correct Answer- Language; Unconscious; Psychoanalysis.

Question 2- Which one of the following statements best describes what the passage is about?

A. The discovery of the unconscious as a part of the human mind.

B. The identification of the unconscious as an object of psychical research.

C. The collating of diverse ideas under the single term: unconscious.

D. The growing vocabulary of the soul and the mind, as diverse processes

Correct Answer- The collating of diverse ideas under the single term: unconscious.

Question 3- "The enrichments of literary and intellectual language led to an altered understanding of the meanings that underlie time-honored expressions and traditional catchwords." Which one of the following interpretations of this sentence would be closest in meaning to the original?

A. The meanings of time-honored expressions were changed by innovations in literary and intellectual language.

B. Time-honored expressions and traditional catchwords were enriched by literary and intellectual language.

C. All of the options are listed here.

D. Literary and intellectual language was altered by time-honored expressions and traditional catchwords.

Correct Answer- The meanings of time-honored expressions were changed by innovations in literary and intellectual language.

Question 4- All of the following statements may be considered valid inferences from the passage, EXCEPT:

A. New conceptions in the nineteenth century could provide new knowledge because of the establishment of fields such as anaesthesiology.

B. Unrelated practices began to be treated as related to each other, as knowledge of the mind grew in the nineteenth century.

C. Eighteenth-century thinkers were the first to perceive a connection between creative genius and insanity.

D. Without the linguistic developments of the nineteenth century, the growth of understanding of the soul and the mind may not have happened.

Correct Answer- New conceptions in the nineteenth century could provide new knowledge because of the establishment of fields such as anaesthesiology.

Question 5- There is a sentence that is missing in the paragraph below. Look at the paragraph and decide in which blank (option 1, 2, 3, or 4) the following sentence would best fit.

Sentence: Most were first-time users of a tablet and a digital app.

Paragraph: Aage Badhein's USP lies in the ethnographic research that constituted the foundation of its development process. Customizations based on learning directly from potential users were critical to making this self-paced app suitable for both a literate and non-literate audience. ___(1)___ The user interface caters to a Hindi-speaking audience who have minimal to no experience with digital services and devices. ___(2)___ The content and functionality of the app are suitable for a wide audience. This includes youth preparing for an independent role in life or a student ready to create a strong foundation of financial management early in her life.

___(3)___ Household members desirous of improving their family's financial strength to reach their aspirations can also benefit. We piloted Aage Badhein in early 2021 with over 400 women from rural areas. ___(4)___ The digital solution generated a large amount of interest in the communities.

A. Option 1

B. Option 2

C. Option 3

D. Option 4

Question 6- The four sentences (labeled 1, 2, 3, and 4) below, when properly sequenced, would yield a coherent paragraph. Decide on the proper sequencing of the order of the sentences and key in the sequence of the four numbers as your

Answer:

1. From chemical pollutants in the environment to the damming of rivers to invasive species transported through global trade and travel, every environmental issue is different and there is no single tech solution that can solve this crisis.

2. Discourse on the threat of environmental collapse revolves around cutting down emissions, but biodiversity loss and ecosystem collapse are caused by myriad and diverse reasons.

3. This would require legislation that recognizes the rights of future generations and other species that allow the judiciary to uphold a much higher standard of environmental protection than currently possible.

4. Clearly, our environmental crisis requires large political solutions, not minor technological ones, so, instead of focusing on infinite growth, we could consider a path of stable-state economies, while preserving markets and healthy competition.

Question 7. Direction: Five jumbled-up sentences, related to a topic, are given below. Four of them can be put together to form a coherent paragraph. Identify the odd one out and key in the number of the sentence as your answer.

1. The victim’s trauma after assault rarely gets the attention that we lavish on the moment of damage that divides the survivor from a less encumbered past.

2. One thing we often do with narratives of sexual assault is sort their respective parties into different temporalities: it seems we are interested in perpetrators’ futures and victims’ pasts.

3. One result is that we don’t have much of a vocabulary for what happens in a victim’s life after the painful past has been excavated, even when our shared language gestures toward the future, as the term “survivor” does.

4. Even the most charitable questions asked about the victims seem to focus on the past, in pursuit of understanding or corroborating of painful details

5. As more and more stories of sexual assault have been made public in the last two years, the genre of their telling has exploded --- crimes have a tendency to become not just stories but genres.

Answer: 4

Question 8- Direction: The passage given below is followed by four alternate summaries. Choose the option that best captures the essence of the passage.

With the Treaty of Westphalia, the papacy had been confined to ecclesiastical functions, and the doctrine of sovereign equality reigned. What political theory could then explain the origin and justify the functions of secular political order? In his Leviathan, published in 1651, three years after the Peace of Westphalia, Thomas Hobbes provided such a theory. He imagined a “state of nature” in the past when the absence of authority produced a “war of all against all.” To escape such intolerable insecurity, he theorized, people delivered their rights to a sovereign power in return for the sovereign’s provision of security for all within the state’s border. The sovereign state’s monopoly on power was established as the only way to overcome the perpetual fear of violent death and war.

A. Thomas Hobbes theorized the voluntary surrender of rights by people as essential for the emergence of sovereign states.

B. Thomas Hobbes theorized the emergence of sovereign states as a form of transactional governance to limit the power of the papacy.

C. Thomas Hobbes theorized that sovereign states emerged out of people’s voluntary desire to overcome the sense of insecurity and establish the doctrine of sovereign equality.

D. Thomas Hobbes theorized the emergence of sovereign states based on a transactional relationship between people and sovereign states that was necessitated by a sense of insecurity of the people.

Answer: D

Question 8- Direction: The passage given below is followed by four alternate summaries. Choose the option that best captures the essence of the passage.

All humans make decisions based on one or a combination of two factors. This is either intuition or information. Decisions made through intuition are usually fast, people don’t even think about the problem. It is quite philosophical, meaning that someone who made a decision based on intuition will have difficulty explaining the reasoning behind it. The decision-maker would often utilize her senses in drawing conclusions, which again is based on some experience in the field of study. On the other side of the spectrum, we have decisions made based on information. These decisions are rational — it is based on facts and figures, which unfortunately also means that it can be quite slow. The decision-maker would frequently use reports, analyses, and indicators to form her conclusion. This methodology results in accurate, quantifiable decisions, meaning that a person can clearly explain the rationale behind it.

A. Decisions based on intuition and information result in differential speed and the ability to provide a rationale.

B. We make decisions based on intuition or information on the basis of the time available.

C. It is better to make decisions based on information because it is more accurate, and the rationale behind it can be explained.

D. While decisions based on intuition can be made fast, the reasons that led to these cannot be spelled out.

Answer: A

Question 9- Direction: The passage given below is followed by four alternate summaries. Choose the option that best captures the essence of the passage.

The rural-urban continuum and the heterogeneity of urban settings pose an obvious challenge to identifying urban areas and measuring urbanization rates in a consistent way within and across countries. An objective methodology for distinguishing between urban and rural areas that is based on one or two metrics with fixed thresholds may not adequately capture the wide diversity of places. A richer combination of criteria would better describe the multifaceted nature of a city’s function and its environment, but the joint interpretation of these criteria may require an element of human judgment.

A. With the diversity of urban landscapes, measurable criteria for defining urban areas may need to be supplemented with human judgment.

B. Distinguishing between urban and rural areas might call for some judgment on the objective methodology being used to define a city’s functions.

C. The difficulty of accurately identifying urban areas means that we need to create a rich combination of criteria that can be applied to all urban areas.

D. Current methodologies used to define urban and rural areas are no longer relevant to our being able to study trends in urbanization.

Answer: A

Question 10- Direction: The four sentences (labeled 1, 2, 3, 4) below, when properly sequenced would yield a coherent paragraph. Decide on the proper sequencing of the order of the sentences and key in the sequence of the four numbers as your answer:

1. While you might think that you see or are aware of all the changes that happen in your immediate environment, there is simply too much information for your brain to fully process everything.

2. Psychologists use the term ‘change blindness’ to describe this tendency of people to be blind to changes though they are in the immediate environment.

3. You cannot be aware of every single thing that happens in the world around you.

4. Sometimes big shifts happen in front of your eyes and you are not at all aware of these changes.

Answer: 1342

Question 11- Direction: The passage given below is followed by four alternate summaries. Choose the option that best captures the essence of the passage.

Brown et al. (2001) suggest that ‘metabolic theory may provide a conceptual foundation for much of ecology just as genetic theory provides a foundation for much of evolutionary biology. One of the successes of genetic theory is the diversity of theoretical approaches and models that have been developed and applied. A Web of Science (v. 5.9. Thomson Reuters) search on genetic* + theor* + evol* identifies more than 12000 publications between 2005 and 2012. Considering only the 10 most-cited papers within this 12000 publication set, genetic theory can be seen to focus on genome dynamics, phylogenetic inference, game theory, and the regulation of gene expression. There is no one fundamental genetic equation, but rather a wide array of genetic models, ranging from simple to complex, with differing inputs and outputs, and divergent areas of application, loosely connected through the shared conceptual foundation of heritable variation.

A. Genetic theory has a wide range of theoretical approaches and applications and Metabolic theory must be the same in the field of ecology.

B. Genetic theory provides an example of how a range of theoretical approaches and applications can make a theory successful.

C. Genetic theory has a wide range of theoretical approaches and applications and is foundational to evolutionary biology and Metabolic theory has the potential to do the same for ecology.

D. Genetic theory has evolved to spawn a wide range of theoretical models and applications but Metabolic theory need not evolve in a similar manner in the field of Ecology.

Answer: C

Other relevant articles:

Comprehension:

The passage below is accompanied by four questions. Based on the passage, choose the best answer for each question. For early postcolonial literature, the world of the novel was often the nation. Postcolonial novels were usually [concerned with] national questions. Sometimes the whole story of the novel was taken as an allegory of the nation, whether India or Tanzania. This was important for supporting anti-colonial nationalism, but could also be limiting – land-focused and inward-looking. My new book “Writing Ocean Worlds” explores another kind of world of the novel: not the village or nation, but the Indian Ocean world. The book describes a set of novels in which the Indian Ocean is at the center of the story. It focuses on the novelists Amitav Ghosh, Abdulrazak Gurnah, Lindsey Collen and Joseph Conrad [who have] centered the Indian Oceanworld in the majority of their novels. . . . Their work reveals a world that is outward-looking – full of movement, border-crossing and south-south interconnection. They are all very different –from colonially inclined (Conrad) to radically anti-capitalist (Collen), but together draw on and shape a wider sense of Indian Ocean space through themes, images, metaphors, and language.

This has the effect of remapping the world in the reader’s mind, as centered in the interconnected global south. . . .The Indian Ocean world is a term used to describe the very long-lasting connections among the coasts of East Africa, the Arab coasts, and South and East Asia. These connections were made possible by the geography of the Indian Ocean. For much of history, travel by sea was much easier than by land, which meant that port cities very far apart were often more easily connected to each other than to much closer inland cities. Historical and archaeological evidence suggests that what we now call globalization first appeared in the Indian Ocean. This is the interconnected oceanic world referenced and produced by the novels in my book. For their part, Ghosh, Gurnah, Collen, and even Conrad reference a different set of histories and geographies than the ones most commonly found in fiction in English. Those [commonly found] are mostly centered in Europe or the US, assume a background of Christianity and whiteness, and mention places like Paris and New York. The novels in [my] book highlight instead a largely Islamic space, feature characters of color, and centralize the ports of Malindi, Mombasa, Aden, Java, and Bombay. . . . It is a densely imagined, richly sensory image of a southern cosmopolitan culture that provides for an enlarged sense of place in the world. This remapping is particularly powerful for the representation of Africa. In the fiction, sailors, and travelers are not all European. . . . African, as well as Indian and Arab characters, are traders, nachos (dhow ship captains), runaways, villains, missionaries, and activists. This does not mean that Indian Ocean Africa is romanticized. Migration is often a matter of force; travel is portrayed as abandonment rather than adventure, freedoms are kept from women, and slavery is rife. What it does mean is that the African part of the Indian Ocean world plays an active role in its long, rich history and therefore in that of the wider world.

Question 12- Based on the nature of the relationship between the items in each pair below, choose the odd pair out:

1. Indian Ocean world: Slavery

2. Indian Ocean novels: Outward-looking

3. Postcolonial novels: Border-crossing

4. Postcolonial novels: Anti-colonial nationalism

Question 13- Which one of the following statements is not true about migration in the Indian Ocean world?

1. The Indian Ocean world’s migration networks were shaped by the religious and commercial histories of the region.

2. The Indian Ocean world’s migration networks connected the global north with the global south.

3. Migration in the Indian Ocean world was an ambivalent experience.

4. Geographical location rather than geographical proximity determined the choice of destination for migrants.

Question 14- All of the following claims contribute to the “remapping” discussed by the passage, EXCEPT:

1. cosmopolitanism originated in the West and traveled to the East through globalization.

2. Indian Ocean novels have gone beyond the specifics of national concerns to explore rich regional pasts.

3. the global south, as opposed to the global north, was the first center of globalization.

4. the world of early international trade and commerce was not the sole domain of white Europeans.

Question 15- All of the following statements, if true, would weaken the passage’s claim about the relationship between mainstream English-language fiction and Indian Ocean novels EXCEPT:

1. the depiction of Africa in most Indian Ocean novels is driven by a postcolonial nostalgia for an idyllic past.

2. the depiction of Africa in most Indian Ocean novels is driven by an Orientalist imagination of its cultural crudeness.

3. most mainstream English-language novels have historically privileged the Christian, white, male experience of travel and adventure.

4. very few mainstream English-language novels have historically been set in American and European metropolitan centers.

Question 16- The passage given below is followed by four alternate summaries. Choose the option that best captures the essence of the passage.

Manipulating information was a feature of history long before modern journalism established rules of integrity. A record dates back to ancient Rome when Antony met Cleopatra and his political enemy Octavian launched a smear campaign against him with “short, sharp slogans written upon coins.” The perpetrator became the first Roman Emperor and “fake news had allowed Octavian to hack the republican system once and for all”. But the 21st century has seen the weaponization of information on an unprecedented scale. Powerful new technology makes the fabrication of content simple, and social networks amplify falsehoods peddled by States, populist politicians, and dishonest corporate entities. The platforms have become fertile ground for computational propaganda, ‘trolling’, and ‘troll armies ’.

1. People need to become critical of what they read, since historically, weaponization of information has led to corruption.

2. The use of misinformation to attain power, a practice that is as old as the Octavian era, is currently fueled by technology.

3. Disinformation, which is mediated by technology today, is not new and has existed since ancient times.

4. Octavian used fake news to manipulate people and attain power and influence, just as people do today.

Question 17- The passage given below is followed by four alternate summaries. Choose the option that best captures the essence of the passage.

Colonialism is not a modern phenomenon. World history is full of examples of one society gradually expanding by incorporating adjacent territory and settling its people on newly conquered territory. In the sixteenth century, colonialism changed decisively because of technological developments in navigation that began to connect more remote parts of the world. The modern European colonial project emerged when it became possible to move large numbers of people across the ocean and to maintain political control despite geographical dispersion. The term colonialism is used to describe the process of European settlement, violent dispossession, and political domination over the rest of the world, including the Americas, Australia, and parts of Africa and Asia.

1. Technological advancements in navigation in the 16th century, transformed colonialism, enabling Europeans to establish settlements and exert political dominance over distant regions.

2. Colonialism, conceptualized in the 16th century, allowed colonizers to expand their territories, establish settlements, and exercise political power.

3. As a result of developments in navigation technology, European colonialism, led to the displacement of indigenous populations and global political changes in the 16th century.

4. Colonialism surged in the 16th century due to advancements in navigation, enabling British settlements abroad and global dominance.

Question 18- Direction: Five jumbled-up sentences, related to a topic, are given below. Four of them can be put together to form a coherent paragraph. Identify the odd one out and key in the number of the sentence as your answer.

1) Machine learning models are prone to learning human-like biases from the training data that feeds these algorithms.

2) Hate speech detection is part of the ongoing effort against oppressive and abusive language on social media.

3) The current automatic detection models miss out on something vital: context.

4) It uses complex algorithms to flag racist or violent speech faster and better than human beings alone.

5) For instance, algorithms struggle to determine if group identifiers like "gay" or "black" are used in offensive or prejudiced ways because they're trained on imbalanced datasets with unusually high rates of hate speech.

Answer: 3

India and the World War

The Indian government has announced an international competition to design a National War Memorial in New Delhi, to honor all of the Indian soldiers who served in the various wars and counter-insurgency campaigns from 1947 onwards. The terms of the competition also specified that the new structure would be built adjacent to the India Gate – a memorial to the Indian soldiers who died in the First World War. Between the old imperialist memorial and the proposed nationalist one, India’s contribution to the Second World War is airbrushed out of existence. The Indian government’s conception of the war memorial was not merely absentminded. Rather, it accurately reflected the fact that both academic history and popular memory have yet to come to terms with India’s Second World War, which continues to be seen as little more than mood music in the drama of India’s advance towards independence and partition in 1947. Further, the political trajectory of the postwar subcontinent has militated against popular remembrance of the war. With partition and the onset of the India-Pakistan rivalry, both of the new nations needed fresh stories for self-legitimization rather than focusing on shared wartime experiences. However, the Second World War played a crucial role in both the independence and partition of India. The Indian army recruited, trained, and deployed some 2.5 million men, almost 90,000 of which were killed and many more injured. Even at the time, it was recognized as the largest volunteer force in the war. India’s material and financial contribution to the war was equally significant. India emerged as a major military-industrial and logistical base for Allied operations in

south-east Asia and the Middle East. This led the United States to take considerable interest in the country’s future and ensured that this was no longer the preserve of the British government. Other wartime developments pointed in the direction of India’s independence. In a stunning reversal of its long-standing financial relationship with Britain, India finished the war as one of the largest creditors to the imperial power. Such extraordinary mobilization for war was achieved at great human cost, with the Bengal famine is the most extreme manifestation of widespread wartime deprivation. The

costs on India’s home front must be counted in millions of lives. Indians signed up to serve on the war and home fronts for a variety of reasons. Many were convinced that their contribution would open the doors to India’s freedom. The political and social churn triggered by the war was evident in the massive waves of popular protest and unrest that washed over rural and urban India in the aftermath of the conflict. This turmoil was crucial in persuading the Attlee government to rid itself of the incubus of ruling India. Seventy years on, it is time that India engaged with the complex legacies of the Second World War. Bringing the war into the ambit of the new national memorial would be a fitting – if not overdue – recognition that this was India’s War.

Question 19- In the first paragraph, the author laments the fact that

A. the new war memorial will be built right next to India Gate.

B. there is no recognition of the Indian soldiers who served in the Second World War.

C. funds will be wasted on another war memorial when we already have the India Gate memorial.

D. India lost thousands of human lives during the Second World War

Answer- there is no recognition of the Indian soldiers who served in the Second World War.

Question 20- The author lists all of the following as outcomes of the Second World War EXCEPT:

A. US recognition of India's strategic location and role in the war.

B. Large-scale deaths in Bengal as a result of deprivation and famine.

C. Independence of the subcontinent and its partition into two countries.

D. The large financial debt India owed to Britain after the war.

Answer- The large financial debt India owed to Britain after the war.

Question 21- The phrase “mood music” is used in the second paragraph to indicate that the Second World War is viewed as:

A. Setting the stage for the emergence of the India–Pakistan rivalry in the subcontinent.

B. a backdrop to the subsequent independence and partition of the region.

C. a part of the narrative on the ill effects of colonial rule on India.

D. a tragic period in terms of loss of lives and national wealth.

Answer- a backdrop to the subsequent independence and partition of the region.

Question 22- The author suggests that a major reason why India has not so far acknowledged its role in the Second World War is that it:

A. wants to forget the human and financial toll of the War on the country

B. has been focused on building an independent, non-colonial political identity.

C. views the War as a predominantly Allied effort, with India playing only a supporting role.

D. blames the War for leading to the momentous partition of the country.

Answer- has been focused on building an independent, non-colonial political identity.

Question 23- The author claims that omitting mention of Indians who served in the Second World War from the new National War Memorial is:

A. a reflection of misplaced priorities of the post-independence Indian governments.

B. a reflection of the academic and popular view of India’s role in the War.

C. appropriate as their names can always be included in the India Gate memorial.

D. is something that can be rectified in the future by constructing a separate memorial.

Question 24- The passage given below is followed by four alternate summaries. Choose the option that best captures the essence of the passage.

Heatwaves are becoming longer, more frequent, and intense due to climate change. The impacts of extreme heat are unevenly experienced; with older people and young children, those with pre-existing medical conditions and on low incomes significantly

more vulnerable. Adaptation to heatwaves is a significant public policy concern. Research conducted among at-risk people in the UK reveals that even vulnerable people do not perceive themselves as at risk of extreme heat; therefore, early warnings of extreme heat events do not perform as intended. This suggests that understanding how extreme heat is narrated is very important. The news media play a central role in this process and can help warn people about the potential danger, as well as about impacts on infrastructure and society.

1. Heatwaves pose an enormous risk; the media plays a pivotal role in alerting people to this danger.

2. News stories help in warning about heatwaves, but they have to become more effective.

3. Protection from heat waves is important but current reports and public policies seem ineffective.

4. People are vulnerable to heat waves caused due to climate change, and measures taken are ineffective.

Possible questions for the DILR Section in CAT 2024

The Data Interpretation & Logical Reasoning (DILR) section of the CAT 2024 exam has 20 questions. The time limit is 40 minutes. The difficulty level for the DILR section of the CAT 2024 exam can be expected from somewhere between moderate to slightly difficult. The most probable questions for the DILR section in CAT 2024 based on previously held CAT exams in 2023, 2022, and 2021 are provided below.

Three reviewers Amal, Bimal, and Komal are tasked with selecting questions from a pool of 13 questions (Q01 to Q13). Questions can be created by external "subject matter experts" (SMEs) or by one of the three reviewers. Each of the reviewers either approves or disapproves a question that is shown to them. Their decisions lead to eventual acceptance or rejection of the question in the manner described below.

If a question is created by an SME, it is reviewed first by Amal, and then by Bimal. If both of them approve the question, then the question is accepted and is not reviewed by Komal. If both disapprove the question, it is rejected and is not reviewed by Komal. If one of them approves the question and the other disapproves it, then the question is reviewed by Komal. Then the question is accepted only if she approves it. A question created by one of the reviewers is decided upon by the other two. If a question is created by Amal, then it is first reviewed by Bimal. If Bimal approves the question, then it is accepted. Otherwise, it is reviewed by Komal. The question is then accepted only if Komal approves it. A similar process is followed for questions created by Bimal, whose questions are first reviewed by Komal, and then by Amal only if Komal disapproves it. Questions created by Komal are first reviewed by Amal, and then, if required, by Bimal.

The following facts are known about the review process after its completion.

1. Q02, Q06, Q09, Q11, and Q12 were rejected and the other questions were accepted.

2. Amal reviewed only Q02, Q03, Q04, Q06, Q08, Q10, Q11, and Q13.

3. Bimal reviewed only Q02, Q04, Q06 through Q09, Q12, and Q13.

4. Komal reviewed only Q01 through Q05, Q07, Q08, Q09, Q11, and Q12.

Question 1- How many questions were DEFINITELY created by Amal?

Answer- 3

Question 2- How many questions were DEFINITELY created by Komal?

Answer- 1

Question 3- How many questions were DEFINITELY created by the SMEs?

Answer- 3

Question 4- How many questions were DEFINITELY disapproved by Bimal?

A. 3

B. 7

C. 4

D. 5

Answer- 4

Question 5- The approval ratio of a reviewer is the ratio of the number of questions (s)he approved to the number of questions (s)he reviewed. Which option best describes Amal's approval ratio?

A. lies between 0.25 and 0.75

B. either 0.25 or 0.75

C. lies between 0.25 and 0.50

D. 0.25

Answer- lies between 0.25 and 0.50

Question 6- How many questions created by Amal or Bimal were disapproved by at least one of the other reviewers?

A. 5

B. 4

C. 7

D. 2

Answer- 5

Adhara, Bithi, Chhaya, Dhanavi, Esther, and Fathima are the interviewers in a process that awards funding for new initiatives. Every interviewer individually interviews each of the candidates individually and awards a token only if she recommends funding. A token has a face value of 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, or 13. Each interviewer awards tokens of a single face value only. Once all six interviews are over for a candidate, the candidate receives funding that is Rs.1000 times the product of the face values of all the tokens. For example, if a candidate has tokens with face values 2, 5, and 7, then they get a funding of Rs.1000 × (2 × 5 × 7) = Rs.70,000.

Pragnyaa, Qahira, Rasheeda, Smera, and Tantra were the five candidates who received funding. The funds they received, in descending order, were Rs.390,000, Rs.210,000, Rs.165,000, Rs.77,000, and Rs.66,000.

The following additional facts are known:

1. Fathima awarded tokens to everyone except Qahira, while Adhara awarded tokens to no one except Pragnyaa.

2. Rashida received the highest number of tokens that anyone received, but she did not receive one from Esther.

3. Bithi awarded a token to Smera but not to Qahira, while Dhanavi awarded a token to Qahira but not to Smera.

Question 7- How many tokens did Qahira receive?

Question 8- Who among the following definitely received a token from Bithi but not from Dhanavi?

A. Qahira

B. Tantra

C. Pragnyaa

D. Rasheeda

Question 9- How many tokens did Chhaya award?

Question 10- How many tokens did Smera receive?

Question 11- Which of the following could be the amount of funding that Tantra Received?

(a) Rs. 66,000

(b) Rs. 165,000

A. Neither (a) nor (b)

B. Only (a)

C. Both (a) and (b)

D. Only (b)

Comprehension:

Faculty members in a management school can belong to one of four departments – Finance and Accounting (F&A), Marketing and Strategy (M&S), Operations and Quants (O&Q) and

Behavior and Human Resources (B&H). The numbers of faculty members in the F&A, M&S, O&Q, and B&H departments are 9, 7, 5, and 3 respectively. Prof. Pakrasi, Prof. Qureshi, Prof. Ramaswamy, and Prof. Samuel are four members of the school's faculty who were candidates for the post of the Dean of the school. Only one of the candidates was from O&Q. Every faculty member, including the four candidates, voted for the post. In each department, all the faculty members who were not candidates voted for the same candidate. The rules for the election are listed below.

1. There cannot be more than two candidates from a single department.

2. A candidate cannot vote for himself/herself.

3. Faculty members cannot vote for a candidate from their department.

After the election, it was observed that Prof. Pakrasi received 3 votes, Prof. Qureshi received 14 votes, Prof. Ramaswamy received 6 votes and Prof. Samuel received 1 vote. Prof. Pakrasi voted for Prof. Ramaswamy, Prof. Qureshi for Prof. Samuel, Prof. Ramaswamy for Prof. Qureshi, and Prof. Samuel for Prof. Pakrasi.

Question 12- Which two candidates can belong to the same department?

1. Prof. Ramaswamy and Prof. Samuel

2. Prof. Qureshi and Prof. Ramaswamy

3. Prof. Pakrasi and Prof. Qureshi

4. Prof. Pakrasi and Prof. Samuel

Question 13- Which of the following can be the number of votes that Prof. Qureshi received from a single department?

1. 9

2. 7

3. 6

4. 8

Question 14- If Prof. Samuel belongs to B&H, which of the following statements is/are true?

Statement A: Prof. Pakrasi belongs to M&S.

Statement B: Prof. Ramaswamy belongs to O&Q.

1. Both statements A and B

2. Only statement B

3. Only statement A

4. Neither statement A nor statement B

Question 15- What best can be concluded about the candidate from O&Q?

1. It was either Prof. Pakrasi or Prof. Qureshi.

2. It was Prof. Samuel.

3. It was Prof. Ramaswamy.

4. It was either Prof. Ramaswamy or Prof. Samuel.

Question 16- Which of the following statements is/are true?

Statement A: Non-candidates from M&S voted for Prof. Qureshi.

Statement B: Non-candidates from F&A voted for Prof. Qureshi.

1. Only statement A

2. Neither statement A nor statement B

3. Both statements A and B

4. Only statement B

Odsville has five firms – Alfloo, Bzygoo, Czechy, Drjbna and Elavalaki. Each of these firms was founded in some year and also closed down a few years later.

Each firm raised Rs. 1 crore in its first and last year of existence. The amount each firm raised every year increased until it reached a maximum, and then decreased until the firm closed down. No firm raised the same amount of money in two consecutive years. Each annual increase and decrease was either by Rs. 1 crore or by Rs. 2 crore.

The table below provides partial information about the five firms.

Question 17- For which firm(s) can the amounts raised by them be concluded with certainty in each year?

1. Only Czechy

2. Only Drjbna

3. Only Czechy and Drjbna

4. Only Bzygoo and Czechy and Drjbna

Question 18- What best can be concluded about the total amount of money raised in 2015?

1. It is either Rs. 8 crores or Rs. 9 crores.

2. It is either Rs. 7 crores or Rs. 8 crores.

3. It is either Rs. 7 crores or Rs. 8 crores or Rs. 9 crores.

4. It is exactly Rs. 8 crores.

Question 19- What is the largest possible total amount of money (in Rs. crores) that could have been raised in 2013?

Case Sensitivity: No

Answer Type: Equal

Possible Answer: 17

Question 20- If Elavalaki raised Rs. 3 crores in 2013, then what is the smallest possible total amount of money (in Rs. crores) that could have been raised by all the companies in 2012?

1. 9

2. 12

3. 10

4. 11

Possible questions for the QA Section in CAT 2024

The Quantitative Aptitude (QA) section is considered to be the most difficult section in the CAT exam. The duration is 40 minutes to attempt all the questions. The QA section in the CAT 2024 exam will have 22 questions in total. To have a fair idea of the difficulty level, the most possible questions to be asked in the CAT 2024 exam based on the previous CAT 2023, 2022, and 2021 exams are given below.

Question 1- If a certain weight of an alloy of silver and copper is mixed with 3 kg of pure silver, the resulting alloy will have 90% silver by weight. If the same weight of the initial alloy is mixed with 2 kg of another alloy which has 90% silver by weight, the resulting alloy will have 84% silver by weight. Then, the weight of the initial alloy, in kg, is

A. 3

B. 2.5

C. 4

D. 3.5

Answer- 3

Question 2- Anil can paint a house in 12 days while Barun can paint it in 16 days. Anil, Barun, and Chandu undertake to paint the house for ₹ 24000 and the three of them together complete the painting in 6 days. If Chandu is paid in proportion to the work done by him, then the amount in INR received by him is

Answer- 3000

Question 3- Mira and Amal walk along a circular track, starting from the same point at the same time. If they walk in the same direction, then in 45 minutes, Amal completes exactly 3 more rounds than Mira. If they walk in opposite directions, then they meet for the first time in exactly 3 minutes. The number of rounds Mira walks in one hour is

Answer- 8

Question 4- A four-digit number is formed by using only the digits 1, 2, and 3 such that both 2 and 3 appear at least once. The number of all such four-digit numbers is

Answer- 50

Question 5- In a triangle ABC, ∠ BCA =50°. D and E are points on AB and AC, respectively, such that AD = DE. If F is a point on BC such that BD = DF, then ∠ FDE, in degrees, is equal to

A. 100

B. 80

C. 96

D. 72

Answer- 80

Question 6- For a real number a, if log15a+log32a/(log15a)(log32a)= = 4 then a must lie in the range

A. 4 < a < 5

B. 3 < a < 4

C. a > 5

D. 2 < a < 3

Answer- 4 < a < 5

Question 7- The arithmetic mean of scores of 25 students in an examination is 50. Five of the students top the examination with the same score. If the scores of the other students are distinct integers with the lowest being 30, then the maximum possible score of the toppers is

Answer- 92

Question 8- Let ABCD be a parallelogram such that the coordinates of its three vertices A, B, and C are (1, 1), (3, 4), and (−2, 8), respectively. Then, the coordinates of the vertex D is

A. (−4, 5)

B. (4, 5)

C. (−3, 4)

D. (0, 11)

Question 9- A mixture contains lemon juice and sugar syrup in equal proportion. If a A new mixture is created by adding this mixture and sugar syrup in the ratio 1 : 3, then the ratio of lemon juice and sugar syrup in the new mixture is

A. 1: 6

B. 1: 4

C. 1: 5

D. 1: 7

Question 10- In triangle ABC, altitudes AD and BE are drawn to the corresponding bases. If ∠BAC=45∘ and ∠ABC=θ, then ADBE equals

A. 2√sinθ

B. 2√cosθ

C. (sinθ+cosθ)/2√

D. 1

Question 11- If a and b are non-negative real numbers such that a+2b=6, then the average of the maximum and minimum possible values of (a+b) is

A. 4

B. 4.5

C. 3.5

D. 3

Question 12- Manu earns ₹4000 per month and wants to save an average of ₹550 per month in a year. In the first nine months, his monthly expense was ₹3500, and he foresees that tenth month onward, his monthly expense will increase to ₹3700. To meet his yearly savings target, his monthly earnings, in rupees, from the tenth month onward should be

A. 4200

B. 4400

C. 4300

D. 4350

Question 13- There are two containers of the same volume, the first container half-filled with sugar syrup and the second container half-filled with milk. Half the content of the first container is transferred to the second container, and then half of this mixture is transferred back to the first container. Next, half the content of the first container is transferred back to the second container. Then the ratio of sugar syrup and milk in the second container is

A. 5: 6

B. 5: 4

C. 6: 5

D. 4: 5

Question 14- Suppose k is any integer such that the equation 2x2+kx+5=0 has no real roots and the equation x2+(k−5)x+1=0 has two distinct real roots for x. Then, the number of possible values of k is

A. 7

B. 8

C. 9

D. 13

Question 15- Minu purchases a pair of sunglasses at Rs.1000 and sells to Kanu at 20% profit. Then, Kanu sells it back to Minu at a 20% loss. Finally, Minu sells the same pair of sunglasses to Tanu. If the total profit made by Minu from all her transactions is Rs.500, then the percentage of profit made by Minu, when she sold the pair of sunglasses to Tanu, is

1. 26%

2. 35.42%

3. 52%

4. 31.25%

Question 16- Pipes A and C are fill pipes while Pipe B is a drain pipe of a tank. Pipe B empties the full tank in one hour less than the time taken by Pipe A to fill the empty tank. When pipes A, B, and C are turned on together, the empty tank is filled in two hours. If pipes B and C are turned on together when the tank is empty and Pipe B is turned off after one hour, then Pipe C takes another hour and 15 minutes to fill the remaining tank.

If Pipe A can fill the empty tank in less than five hours, then the time is taken, in minutes, by Pipe C to fill the empty tank is

1. 90

2. 120

3. 75

4. 60

Question 17- In a company, 20% of the employees work in the manufacturing department. If the total salary obtained by all the manufacturing employees is one-sixth of the total salary obtained by all the employees in the company, then the ratio of the average salary obtained by the manufacturing employees to the average salary obtained by the non- manufacturing employees is

Ans 1. 4 : 5

2. 6 : 5

3. 5 : 6

4. 5 : 4

Question 18- In a rectangle ABCD, AB = 9 cm and BC = 6 cm. P and Q are two points on BC such that the areas of the figures ABP, APQ, and AQCD are in geometric progression. If the area of the figure AQCD is four times the area of triangle ABP, then BP: PQ: QC is

1. 1: 2: 1

2. 1 1: 2

3. 2 4: 1

4. 1 2 4

Question 19- Rahul, Rakshita, and Gurmeet, working together, would have taken more than 7 days to finish a job. On the other hand, Rahul and Gurmeet, working together would have taken less than 15 days to finish the job. However, they all worked together for 6 days, followed by Rakshita, who worked alone for 3 more days to finish the job. If Rakshita had worked alone on the job then the number of days she would have taken to finish the job, cannot be

1. 20

2. 21

3. 16

4. 17

Question 20- Anil mixes cocoa with sugar in the ratio 3: 2 to prepare mixture A, and coffee with sugar in the ratio 7 : 3 to prepare mixture B. He combines mixtures A and B in the ratio 2 : 3 to make a new mixture C. If he mixes C with an equal amount of milk to make a drink, then the percentage of sugar in this drink will be

1. 24

2. 16

3. 17

4. 21

Question 21- A merchant purchases a cloth at a rate of Rs.100 per meter and receives 5 cm length of cloth free for every 100 cm length of cloth purchased by him. He sells the same cloth at a rate of Rs.110 per meter but cheats his customers by giving 95 cm length of cloth for every 100 cm length of cloth purchased by the customers. If the merchant provides a 5% discount, the resulting profit earned by him is

1. 9.7%

2. 15.5%

3. 4.2%

4. 16%

Question 22- Ravi is driving at a speed of 40 km/h on a road. Vijay is 54 meters behind Ravi and driving in the same direction as Ravi. Ashok is driving along the same road from the opposite direction at a speed of 50 km/h and is 225 meters away from Ravi. The speed, in km/h, at which Vijay should drive so that all the three cross each other at the same time, is

1. 61.6

2. 64.4

3. 58.8

4. 67.2

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• How Much CAT Score is Required for IIM