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Crack CAT 2024 with Practice Set-2: Top Questions and Expert Tips - Day 8
Edited By Irshad Anwar | Updated on Jan 08, 2025 06:48 AM IST | #CAT
As the CAT 2025 exam date approaches, the pressure is on for every aspirant. You might be wondering how to effectively study in 2 months, what strategy to follow, the best source for theory and practice questions. To help you, we've prepared a 60-day preparation plan based on the CAT 2025 syllabus. We've covered daily strategies up to Day 7, where we focused on percentages, caselets Logical Reasoning and prepositions.
CAT 2025: VARC, DILR, and Quant: MCQs & Weightages | Chapter-wise MCQs
CAT 2025 Study Material: VARC | Quantitative Aptitude | 60 Days Study Material by Experts
Online MBA: Complete Guide | Top Ranked Colleges | Best Courses by Top Universities
For Day 8 of our CAT preparation, we're providing CAT Practice questions based on the syllabus we've covered so far. Attempting these questions can help you to track your progress. CAT exam practice questions and answers are prepared for the students to get a learning experience of the syllabus in different ways and how they can prepare it well.
Part-A: Quantitative Aptitude for CAT 2025
Cat Exam Aptitude Questions
Q1. If 138! is divisible by 7n, then find the maximum value of n.
24
20
21
22
Q2. Find the smallest natural number n such that n! is divisible by 1430.
3
13
11
124
CAT 2025: VARC, DILR, and Quant MCQs & Weightages
Comprehensive CAT prep guide with focused practice on Verbal Ability, Data Interpretation & Logical Reasoning, and Quantitative Aptitude.
Download NowQ3. Find the remainder when 591 is divided by 626.
125
1
49
7
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Q4. n is a number, such that 2n has 8 factors and 3n has 6 factors. 6n has.
24
48
12
Cannot be determined
Q5. How many pairs of positive integers x, y exist such that LCM (x, y) - HCF (x, y) = 42? [TITA]
Q6. 8 different brands of pairs of shoes counting 16, 64, 48, 88, 92, 60, 120, and 44 were ordered by a newly opened store. They need to be packed in such a way that each box has the same brand of pair of shoes and the number of pairs of shoes in each box is also the same. What is the minimum number of boxes required to pack?
129
64
48
133
Q7. Mr Kaju Srivastava is worried about the Expenditure on PNG. The price of PNG has increased by 30%. By what percent should he reduce the consumption of PNG so that he is able to maintain his Expenditure on PNG?
33.33 %
21 %
23 %
14.28 %
Q8. Of the population over 18 yrs in Singapore, 36% of men and 45% of women are married. What percentage of the total population of age more than 18 yrs are men? (Assume that no man marries more than one woman and vice versa)?
44.44%
55.55%
Cannot be determined
None of these
Directions for Questions 9 to 10: Read the following and answer the questions that follow.
Vande Bharat express has 4 AC-I coaches having 24 berths each, 6 AC-II Coaches having 45 berths each, and 3 AC-III Coaches having 64 berths each. There are no general Coaches on the train. If Rs 2000 is the cost of an AC -III berth from Delhi to Jammu. Following information in addition to above information is given:
AC-I berth is 20% expensive than AC-II berths.
AC-II berth is 20% more expensive than AC-III berths.
answer the following questions:
Q9. The value of the maximum revenue possible from Vande Bharat Express between Delhi to Jammu is
More than Rs.1.5 million
less than Rs.1.5 million
More than Rs. 1 million
Between Rs 1 to 1.5 million
Q10. What percent of revenue is generated from AC-I tickets in the previous question?
24.23%
21.13%
22.23%
28.9%
CAT Practice Papers: Answers And Solutions
Part A (Quantitative Aptitude)
CAT entrance exam question papers with answers:
Ans1: (c)
To find the maximum value of ‘n’, we have to count the number of 7s in 138!
So, n = [138/7] + [138/49], where [x] = maximum integer function
So, n = 19 + 2 =21
Ans 2: (b)
Do Prime factorization of 1430
i.e. 1430 = 13 x 11 x 5 x 2
n! must be 13 or greater since before 13, n! do not contain any 13.
So, the answer must be n = 13 (13! Will contain at least one 5, one 2, one 11 and one 13)
Ans 3: (a)
When 54 i.e. 625 divided by 626, the remainder is -1.
591 = (54x22) x53 = (62522) x125
Rem (591/626) = Rem {(62522) x125/ 626} = Rem {(-1)22 x125/626} = 125
Ans 4: (c)
2n has 8 factors. So, 2n must be of the form of one of the following:
2n = axbxc (no of factors = 2x2x2 = 8, here a, b and c are prime numbers)
Or
2n = axb3 (no of factors = 2x4 = 8, here a and b are prime numbers)
It is clear from here a= 2.
3n has 6 factors. So, 3n must be of the form of one of the following:
3n = b5 (no of factors = (5+1) = 6, where b is a prime numbers)
Or
3n = cxb2 (no of factors = 2x3 = 6, here c and b are prime numbers)
It is clear from here b = 3.
Here c will be a prime number other than 2 and 3.
Case 1:
2n = ax b3= 2n = 2x33; both cases of 3n will not be possible. So 2n cannot be ax b3.
Case 2:
2n = axbxc = 2x3xc; 3n = cxb2 = cx32 is possible
So, n = 3xc
6n = 2x32×c
No of factors = (1+1) x (2+1) x (1+1) = 2x3x2 = 12
Ans 5: 10 possible pairs are there.
Solution is as follows:
Let x = h x a; y = h x b, where h is HCF of x and y; a and b are co-primes
LCM = h x a x b
ATQ
h x a x b – h = 42
h (a x b - 1) = 42
H | (a x b - 1) | a x b | Possibility of a and b |
1 | 42 | 43 | (1, 43) |
2 | 21 | 22 | (1, 22), (2, 11) |
3 | 14 | 15 | (1, 15), (3, 5) |
6 | 7 | 8 | (1, 8) |
7 | 6 | 7 | (1, 7) |
14 | 3 | 4 | (1, 4) |
21 | 2 | 3 | (1, 3) |
42 | 1 | 2 | (1, 2) |
Total possible pairs in a and b are 10.
Therefore, 10 pairs in x and y exist.
Ans 6: (d)
Take the HCF of the number of pairs of shoes and divide the total number of pair of shoes by HCF to find the minimum number of boxes required.
HCF (16, 64, 48, 88, 92, 60, 120, 44) = 4
Number of boxes are required = (16+64+48+88+92+60+120+44)/4 = 133
Since n is even, unit digit of 42n + 1 = 4 (Since 4^odd is always gives 4 as unit digit)
and unit digit of 4n = 6 (Since 4odd is always gives 6 as unit digit)
Ans 7: (c)
Price is increased by 30% means, if initial price was Rs 10 then new price will be Rs. 13
E2 (New Expenditure) = E1 (old Expenditure)
Using,
E2/E1 = (New Price/ Old Price) x (New Consumption/ Old Consumption)
1 = 13/10 x(New Consumption/ Old Consumption)
So, (New Consumption/ Old Consumption) = 10/13
We can say consumption will reduce from 13 to 10 i.e. 23.07%
Ans 8: (b)
Let there are 100x and 100y men and women respectively (Age more than 18 yrs)
Married Men = Married Women
i.e. 36x = 45y
So, x = 5y/4
Total Men = 100x = 100x5y/4 = 125y
Total Population (more than 18yrs) = 125y + 100y = 225y
Men = 125y × 100/225y % = 55.55%.
Ans 9: (d)
Cost of AC-III berth = Rs 2000
Cost of AC-II berth = Rs 2400
Cost of AC-I berth = Rs 2880
Maximum revenue is when all the berths are filled
Revenue from AC-III Coaches = 3x64x2000 = Rs 384000
Revenue from AC-II Coaches = 6x45x2400 = Rs 648000
Revenue from AC-I Coaches = 4x24x2880 = Rs 276480
Total revenue = Rs 384000 + Rs 648000 + Rs 276480 = Rs 1308480
Ans 10: (b)
Revenue from AC-I coaches = Rs 276480
Total Revenue = Rs. 1308480
Share of AC-I = 276480 × 100/1308480 = 21.13%
Part-B: LRDI Sets For CAT 2025
Direction (Q1-Q3):
The graph below informs about the total area and the population density for 8 different countries. The area of all countries is the same for the two years 2002 and 2008 and is shown by the bar graph, read off from the right-hand Y-axis. The population density is dividing the total population of the country by the area and is depicted by the line graphs and is read off the left-hand Y-axis. The two line graphs refer to the population density in the years 2002 and 2008.
Q1. How many countries had a higher population in 2008 as compared to 2002?
8
7
6
Cannot be determined.
Q2. Find the increase in the population of F from 2002 to 2008.
5.44 mn
5.44 lacs
5,440
Cannot be determined
Q3. The country with the largest population in 2008 among the given countries is
A
E
F
Cannot be determined
Population Density = \text {$\frac{Population}{Area}$}
Thus, the Population of a country can be found by multiplying the population density by the area.
CAT Practice Papers: Answers And Solutions
Part B (LRDI)
1. c
Since for all countries, the area remains the same over the two years, 2002 and 2008, then if population density has increased from 2002 to 2008, the population has increased and if population density has decreased, then the population has decreased. The number of countries having a population density in 2008 more than that in 2002 is 6 (except B and E)
2. a
The increase in the population of F = (70 – 62) × 680,000 i.e. 8 × 680,000 = 5,440,000 i.e. 5.44 mn.
3. b
Since the area has remained the same in 2002 and 2008, the percentage increase in the population is the same as the percentage increase in the population density. Thus, the required percentage growth is percentage growth from 46 to 56 i.e. a decrease of 10/46 i.e., 10/46 x100 = 21.73%
The country with the largest population is going to be one that has a higher population density as well as a higher area. Looking for this combination in the graph, the choices are narrowed down to E and F. (Each of the rest of the countries has both the area and the population density lower than one of these two countries)
Population of E in 2008 = 76 × 600 = 45600 thousand.
Population of F in 2008 = 70 × 680 = 47600 thousand.
Thus, in 2008, the highest population is F.
Directions for questions 4 to 7: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
The following table gives the details of the production of 4 crops in India from the years 2007 to 2010. Winter and Summer refer to two different seasons of sowing and harvesting in the year. All 4 crops are produced in both seasons and the break-up across the two seasons is also given in the table.
Further, the table also gives the yield of the crops across the seasons and the years. Yield is defined as the production of the crop per hectare of the area under cultivation.
2007 | 2008 | 2009 | 2010 | ||||||
Season | prod. | Yield | prod. | Yield | prod. | Yield | prod. | Yield | |
Rice | Winter | 74.47 | 1.91 | 76.7 | 1.88 | 80.2 | 2.12 | 78.25 | 2.05 |
Summer | 11.25 | 3.02 | 12.6 | 2.98 | 12 | 2.88 | 12.5 | 3.15 | |
Jowar | Winter | 4.18 | 1.03 | 4.6 | 0.96 | 4.88 | 1.11 | 5.12 | 0.9 |
Summer | 2.96 | 0.6 | 3.4 | 0.65 | 3.2 | 0.7 | 3.8 | 0.75 | |
Maize | Winter | 11.44 | 1.74 | 10.4 | 1.76 | 9.1 | 1.8 | 12.5 | 1.85 |
Summer | 2.58 | 3.22 | 1.9 | 2.87 | 3.5 | 3.08 | 3.96 | 3.2 | |
Pulses | Winter | 4.94 | 0.45 | 4.7 | 0.45 | 5.11 | 0.55 | 4.98 | 0.55 |
Summer | 8.41 | 0.72 | 7.9 | 0.74 | 7.5 | 0.75 | 8.2 | 0.78 | |
Production figures are in million tonnes and the Yield is in tons/hectare.
Q4. In 2008, for how many of the four crops is the yield in the summer season more than the yield in the Winter season?
1
2
3
4
Q5. In which year did the area under cultivation of Rice in the Winter season increase by the greatest rate?
2007
2008
2009
2010
Q6. Arrange the following in increasing order of their magnitudes
I. The area under cultivation of Jowar in the Summer season in the year 2009
II. the area under cultivation of Maize in the Winter season in the year 2007
III. the area under cultivation of Pulses in the Summer season in the year 2010
I,II, III
I, III, II
II, III, I
III, II, I
Q7. The area under cultivation of which crop was the highest in the Winter season of 2008?
Rice
Jowar
Maize
Pulses
CAT Practice Papers: Answers And Solutions
Part B (LRDI)
Solutions:
Since 
, and we are given Production and Yield figures, so re-arranging the relation to get area, we have 
. With the units given, we will get the area in million hectares.
4. c
Just check the table where the yield in second row is more then the yield in the first row in 2008
We see that for Rice, Maize and Pulses, the yield in Summer is more than the yield in Winter.
5. b
The area under cultivation of rice in Winter season in successive years can be found as 
. And we have to find in which year the growth rate is the greatest. Just by solving the above fraction, we found that in 2008 we have the highest growth rate
6. a
I. Area = 
= 4.46
II. Area = 
=6.4
III. Area = 
=10.51
Thus, increasing order will be I, II, III
7. a
The area for Rice, Jowar, Maize and Pulses is found as 
Part-C : VARC for CAT 2025
In the questions below, find the phrase with error.
Q1: As Franklin ran (a)/ next the street, he wondered (b)/ what he should buy.(c)/ No Error (d)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Ans: B.
“Along the street” should be there in place of “next the street”
Q2. Hardly had he visited(a)/ his friend’s house(b) when got invited(c). No Error(d)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Ans: A
In interrogative sentences, the first form of the verb should be used.
‘Visit’ should be there
Q3. This view has been taken (a)/ by one of the ablest persons (b)/ who has written on this subject (c)/. No error(d)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Ans. C
‘Have’ in place of ‘has’ should be there. (Plural verb should come with plural noun)
Q4. Due to population, Indian(a)/ agriculture are in pressure to raise(b)/ more and more crops. (c) /No Error(d)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Ans: B
‘Under pressure’ will be there in place of ‘in pressure’.
Q5. We must have(a)/ sympathy for the needy (b)/ and the poor. (c)/ No Error(d)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Ans: D
for the needy (use of definite article)
Q6. Prince Charles is a heir (a)/ to the throne(b)/ of Great Britain. (c)/ No Error(d)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Ans. A
‘an’ in place of ’a’ due to the vowel sound of an heir.
Q7. The roads of Agra(a)/ are wider and cleaner(b)/ than Noida. (c)/ No Error (d)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Ans. C
“than those of Noida” will be the correct phrase. (Comparison should be with similar things.)
Q8. The teacher asked(a)/ the student’s father to (b)/ put his sign on the report card. (c)/ No Error(d)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Ans. C
‘Signature’ in place of ‘sign’
Hope everyone learned the concepts and will practice more!
Keep practicing, keep learning, see you on Day 9
Thank you
All the Best
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Questions related to CAT
Have a question related to CAT ?
The CUSAT CAT previous year question papers are available on the Careers360 website. You can find question papers from 2012 to 2023, which can be downloaded in PDF format HERE
Additionally, the official website of Cochin University of Science and Technology (CUSAT) also provides previous year question papers. To access them, you can follow these steps:
- Visit the CUSAT official website - admissions.cusat.ac.in.
- Click on the resources tab from the homepage.
- Select the previous year's question papers from the drop-down menu.
- Select the Common Admission Test (CAT) question papers link.
- Now click on the B.Tech course.
By practicing with these previous year question papers, you can get familiar with the exam pattern, identify important topics, and improve your time management skills.
sadafreen356 28 March,2025
Hey Shathvika,
Let's dive deep into MBA Entrance Exams (Other than CAT)
1. XAT (Xavier Aptitude Test)
Conducted by: XLRI, Jamshedpur
Eligibility: Bachelor’s degree in any discipline.
Exam Pattern:
- Sections: Decision Making, Verbal & Logical Ability, Quantitative Ability & Data Interpretation, and General Knowledge.
- Duration: 3 hours.
- Marks: No negative marking for General Knowledge.
Key Highlights:
- The Decision-Making section tests analytical and situational judgment skills.
- General Knowledge is evaluated during interviews, not for percentile calculation.
Official Website: https://xatonline.in
---
2. SNAP (Symbiosis National Aptitude Test)
Conducted by: Symbiosis International (Deemed) University
Eligibility: Bachelor’s degree with 50% marks (45% for reserved categories).
Exam Pattern:
- Sections: General English, Quantitative, Data Interpretation & Data Sufficiency, and Analytical & Logical Reasoning.
- Duration: 1 hour.
- Marks: Total 60 marks (MCQs).
Key Highlights:
- Specifically for admission to Symbiosis institutes like SIBM Pune and SCMHRD.
- Easy-to-moderate difficulty level.
Official Website: https://snaptest.org
---
3. CMAT (Common Management Admission Test)
Conducted by: National Testing Agency (NTA)
Eligibility: Bachelor’s degree in any discipline.
Exam Pattern:
- Sections: Quantitative Techniques & Data Interpretation, Logical Reasoning, Language Comprehension, General Awareness, and Innovation & Entrepreneurship.
- Duration: 3 hours.
- Marks: 400 marks.
Key Highlights:
- Accepted by over 1,000 AICTE-approved institutes.
- Includes an optional Innovation & Entrepreneurship section.
Official Website: https://cmat.nta.nic.in
---
4. MAT (Management Aptitude Test)
Conducted by: All India Management Association (AIMA)
Eligibility: Bachelor’s degree in any discipline.
Exam Pattern:
- Sections: Language Comprehension, Mathematical Skills, Data Analysis & Sufficiency, Intelligence & Critical Reasoning, and Indian & Global Environment.
- Duration: 2.5 hours.
- Marks: 200 marks.
Key Highlights:
- Held multiple times a year in PBT, CBT, and IBT modes.
- Accepted by more than 600 MBA colleges in India.
Official Website: https://mat.aima.in
---
5. NMAT (NMIMS Management Aptitude Test)
Conducted by: Graduate Management Admission Council (GMAC)
Eligibility: Bachelor’s degree with 50% marks.
Exam Pattern:
- Sections: Language Skills, Quantitative Skills, and Logical Reasoning.
- Duration: 2 hours.
- Marks: 360 marks.
Key Highlights:
- Allows three attempts, with the best score considered.
- Accepted by NMIMS and partner universities worldwide.
Official Website: https://www.mba.com/exams/nmat
---
6. IIFT (Indian Institute of Foreign Trade)
Conducted by: National Testing Agency (NTA)
Eligibility: Bachelor’s degree (final-year students can also apply).
Exam Pattern:
- Sections: Quantitative Analysis, Reading Comprehension & Verbal Ability, Logical Reasoning & Data Interpretation, and General Knowledge.
- Duration: 2 hours.
- Marks: 300 marks.
Key Highlights:
- Specifically for IIFT’s flagship MBA in International Business.
- General Knowledge plays a significant role in shortlisting.
Official Website: https://iift.nta.nic.in
---
7. TISSNET (Tata Institute of Social Sciences National Entrance Test)
Conducted by: Tata Institute of Social Sciences
Eligibility: Bachelor’s degree.
Exam Pattern:
- Sections: English Proficiency, Mathematics & Logical Reasoning, and General Awareness.
- Duration: 100 minutes.
- Marks: 100 marks.
Key Highlights:
- Focused on social sciences, HRM, and public policy programs.
- General Awareness is crucial (with emphasis on current affairs).
Official Website: https://admissions.tiss.edu
---
8. MICAT (MICA Aptitude Test)
Conducted by: MICA, Ahmedabad
Eligibility: Bachelor’s degree and a valid CAT/XAT/GMAT score.
Exam Pattern:
- Sections: Psychometric Test, Verbal Ability, Quantitative Ability, General Awareness, Divergent-Convergent Thinking, and Descriptive Test.
- Duration: 2.5 hours.
Key Highlights:
- Psychometric Test is a qualifying section.
- Specifically for MICA’s flagship PGDM-C program in Strategic Marketing and Communications.
Official Website: https://www.mica.ac.in
---
9. GMAT (Graduate Management Admission Test)
Conducted by: Graduate Management Admission Council (GMAC)
Eligibility: No specific eligibility; bachelor’s degree recommended.
Exam Pattern:
- Sections: Analytical Writing, Integrated Reasoning, Quantitative Reasoning, and Verbal Reasoning.
- Duration: 3 hours 7 minutes.
- Marks: 800 (scaled score).
Key Highlights:
- Globally recognized for MBA programs.
- Popular for Indian B-schools like ISB, SPJIMR, and Great Lakes.
Official Website: https://www.mba.com
---
10. MAH-CET (Maharashtra Common Entrance Test)
Conducted by: Maharashtra State CET Cell
Eligibility: Bachelor’s degree with a minimum of 50% marks (45% for reserved categories).
Exam Pattern:
- Sections: Logical Reasoning, Abstract Reasoning, Quantitative Aptitude, and Verbal Ability & Reading Comprehension.
- Duration: 2.5 hours.
- Marks: 200 marks (MCQs).
Key Highlights:
- Accepted by top Maharashtra B-schools like JBIMS, SIMSREE, and PUMBA.
- Known for its speed-intensive nature with 200 questions in 150 minutes.
Official Website: https://cetcell.mahacet.org
Let me know if you have any doubts regarding a specific exam or any other query.
Have a nice day !!
RAJIV TIWARI 27 March,2025
Hello Ayush,
K.R. Mangalam University utilizes a blend of MCQs, descriptive formats, and practical assessments to evaluate student performance. The continuous evaluation system ensures that students are assessed regularly throughout the semester, contributing to a more comprehensive understanding of their academic progress.
Narendra Ranawat 26 March,2025
Hello,
Here are some simple tips to prepare for the CUSAT CAT exam:
1. Focus on Physics, Chemistry, and Maths (PCM).
2. Give equal time to all subjects.
3. Use NCERT Books as they are best for basics.
You can refer to following study materials for better practice :-
Hope it helps !
Prachi Kumari 26 March,2025
Hello there,
Yes, you can apply for CAT examination after completion of Doctor of Pharmacy (Pharm D) .
The Common Admission Test (CAT) has no restrictions regarding your educational background thus allowing you to submit your application following your completion of a Pharm. D degree.
The Common Admission Test permits candidates to take the exam after completing any undergraduate degree without any restrictions to the area of study. The professional doctoral degree of Pharm. D (Doctor of Pharmacy) functions as an equivalent to bachelor's level for CAT eligibility recognition.
Therefore, Candidates who received their Pharm. D degree can pursue the CAT exam application process based on their qualification standards.
Hope this will help!
Divyanshi Priya 22 March,2025
Popular CAT Questions
Directions for question :
M/s Deloitte Touche Tohmatsu Limited, one of the top four audit and accounting firms in the world with headquarters at London, UK, and with an operational presence in 153 countries, hires Management Trainees (MT) from all the premier management institutes of India thrice every year, in the months of January, May and September.
Each new group of Management Trainees (MT) have to go through a four month rigorous training schedule, after which they have to pass through a test consisting of a written assessment and a case-analysis. The top hundred ranked Management Trainees (MT) based on the performance in the test are confirmed as Management Executives (ME). The rest are given the opportunity of undergoing the training for four months one more time along with the next batch of Management Trainees (MT) and then passing through the subsequent test consisting of the written assessment and case-analysis. The Management Trainee (MT) who fails to get confirmed as a Management Executive (ME) the second time is fired.
The scatter-graph below depicts the number of Management Trainees (MT) at Deloitte taking the tests from January 2020 till May 2022, and the vis-à-vis hired Management Trainees (MT) at Deloitte who were fired :
It is also known that for the month of September 2019 at Deloitte, 96 hired Management Trainees (MT) failed to be confirmed as a Management Executive (ME) the first time, and that 36 hired Management Trainees (MT) were fired.
Question :
In which test did the minimum number of Management Trainees (MT) get confirmed as a Management Executive (ME) in the second attempt ?
Option: 1
September 2020
Option: 2
May 2021
Option: 3
January 2021
Option: 4
January 2022
Directions for question:
The bar-graph given below shows the foreign exchange reserves of Nepal (in million Rupees) from 2014 to 2021. Answer the following questions based on the graph :
Question:
What was the percentage increase (rounded to the nearest integer, if deemed necessary) in the foreign exchange reserves in 2020 over 2016 ?
Option: 1 None
Option: 2 None
Option: 3 None
Option: 4 None
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Business Development Executive
A Business Development Executive (BDE) is a professional responsible for identifying growth opportunities and fostering strategic partnerships to enhance a company's market position. Typically, a BDE conducts market research, analyses industry trends, and identifies potential clients or business prospects. He or she plays a crucial role in developing and implementing sales strategies to achieve revenue targets.
A BDE often collaborates with cross-functional teams, including marketing and product development, to align business objectives. Strong communication, negotiation, and relationship-building skills are essential for success in this role. BDE strives to expand the company's customer base, drive sales, and contribute to overall organisational growth in a dynamic and competitive business environment.
3 Jobs Available
Content Marketing Specialist
Content Marketing Specialists are also known as Content Specialists. They are responsible for crafting content, editing and developing it to meet the requirements of digital marketing campaigns. To ensure that the material created is consistent with the overall aims of a digital marketing campaign, content marketing specialists work closely with SEO and digital marketing professionals.
3 Jobs Available
Sales Manager
A sales manager is a revenue-generating source for a company. Any organisation or company which sells a commodity or service requires sales to generate revenue. A Sales manager is a professional responsible for supervising the sales team. An Individual as a sales manager works closely with salespeople, assigns sales territories, sets quotas, mentors the members of the sales, assigns sales training, and builds a sales plan.
The Sales Manager work also includes hiring and laying off sales personnel after evaluating his or her work performance. In bigger entities, sales quotas and plans are usually set at the executive level. He or she is responsible for overseeing the set target or quotas met by salespeople or upholding any policy. He or she guides his or her fellow salespeople and allows them to sell.
2 Jobs Available
Business Analyst
Individuals who opt for a career as a business analyst look at how a company operates. He or she conducts research and analyses data to improve his or her knowledge about the company. This is required so that an individual can suggest the company strategies for improving their operations and processes.
In a business analyst job role a lot of analysis is done, things are learned from past mistakes and the successful strategies are enhanced further. A business analyst goes through real-world data in order to provide the most feasible solutions to an organisation. Students can pursue Business Analytics to become Business Analysts.
2 Jobs Available
Marketing Manager
A marketing manager is a person who oversees a company or product marketing. He or she can be in charge of multiple programmes or goods or can be in charge of one product. He or she is enthusiastic, organised, and very diligent in meeting financial constraints. He or she works with other team members to produce advertising campaigns and decides if a new product or service is marketable.
A Marketing manager plans and executes marketing initiatives to create demand for goods and services and increase consumer awareness of them. A marketing manager prevents unauthorised statements and informs the public that the business is doing everything to investigate and fix the line of products. Students can pursue an MBA in Marketing Management courses to become marketing managers.
2 Jobs Available
SEO Analyst
An SEO Analyst is a web professional who is proficient in the implementation of SEO strategies to target more keywords to improve the reach of the content on search engines. He or she provides support to acquire the goals and success of the client’s campaigns.
2 Jobs Available
Digital Marketing Executive
Digital marketing is growing, diverse, and is covering a wide variety of career paths. Each job function aids in the development of effective digital marketing strategies and techniques. The aims and objectives of the individuals who opt for a career as a digital marketing executive are similar to those of a marketing professional: to build brand awareness, promote company services or products, and increase conversions. Individuals who opt for a career as Digital Marketing Executives, unlike traditional marketing companies, communicate effectively through suitable technology platforms.
2 Jobs Available
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