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Crack CAT 2025 with Practice Set-2: Top Questions and Expert Tips - Day 8
Edited By Irshad Anwar | Updated on Apr 03, 2025 10:39 AM IST | #CAT
As the CAT 2025 exam date is expected to be in November, we know that pressure is on for every aspirant. Since every MBA aspirant awaits enthusiastically for this opportunity once a year, we are here to provide you the best mock papers to give you the best idea of the CAT exam in the most efficient and effective way. You might be wondering with various dilemmas such as how to effectively study in 2 months, what strategy to follow, the best source for theory and practice questions. To help you, we've prepared a 60-day preparation plan based on the CAT 2025 syllabus. We've covered daily strategies up to Day 7, where we focused on percentages, caselets Logical Reasoning and prepositions.
CAT 2025: VARC, DILR, and Quant: MCQs & Weightages | Chapter-wise MCQs
CAT 2025 Study Material: VARC | Quantitative Aptitude | 60 Days Study Material by Experts
Online MBA: Complete Guide | Universities That Redefine Online MBA in India
For Day 8 of our CAT preparation, we're providing CAT Practice questions based on the syllabus we've covered so far. Attempting these questions can help you to track your progress in the best possible way. CAT exam practice questions and answers are prepared for the students to get a learning experience of the syllabus in different ways and how they can prepare it well to avoid last minute rush or hassle.
Part-A: Quantitative Aptitude for CAT 2025
Cat Exam Aptitude Questions
Q1. If 138! is divisible by 7n, then find the maximum value of n.
24
20
21
22
Q2. Find the smallest natural number n such that n! is divisible by 1430.
3
13
11
124
CAT 2025: VARC, DILR, and Quant MCQs & Weightages
Comprehensive CAT prep guide with focused practice on Verbal Ability, Data Interpretation & Logical Reasoning, and Quantitative Aptitude.
Download NowQ3. Find the remainder when 591 is divided by 626.
125
1
49
7
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Q4. n is a number, such that 2n has 8 factors and 3n has 6 factors. 6n has.
24
48
12
Cannot be determined
Q5. How many pairs of positive integers x, y exist such that LCM (x, y) - HCF (x, y) = 42? [TITA]
Q6. 8 different brands of pairs of shoes counting 16, 64, 48, 88, 92, 60, 120, and 44 were ordered by a newly opened store. They need to be packed in such a way that each box has the same brand of pair of shoes and the number of pairs of shoes in each box is also the same. What is the minimum number of boxes required to pack?
129
64
48
133
Q7. Mr Kaju Srivastava is worried about the Expenditure on PNG. The price of PNG has increased by 30%. By what percent should he reduce the consumption of PNG so that he is able to maintain his Expenditure on PNG?
33.33 %
21 %
23 %
14.28 %
Q8. Of the population over 18 yrs in Singapore, 36% of men and 45% of women are married. What percentage of the total population of age more than 18 yrs are men? (Assume that no man marries more than one woman and vice versa)?
44.44%
55.55%
Cannot be determined
None of these
Directions for Questions 9 to 10: Read the following and answer the questions that follow.
Vande Bharat express has 4 AC-I coaches having 24 berths each, 6 AC-II Coaches having 45 berths each, and 3 AC-III Coaches having 64 berths each. There are no general Coaches on the train. If Rs 2000 is the cost of an AC -III berth from Delhi to Jammu. Following information in addition to above information is given:
AC-I berth is 20% expensive than AC-II berths.
AC-II berth is 20% more expensive than AC-III berths.
answer the following questions:
Q9. The value of the maximum revenue possible from Vande Bharat Express between Delhi to Jammu is
More than Rs.1.5 million
less than Rs.1.5 million
More than Rs. 1 million
Between Rs 1 to 1.5 million
Q10. What percent of revenue is generated from AC-I tickets in the previous question?
24.23%
21.13%
22.23%
28.9%
CAT Practice Papers: Answers And Solutions
Part A (Quantitative Aptitude)
CAT entrance exam question papers with answers:
Ans1: (c)
To find the maximum value of ‘n’, we have to count the number of 7s in 138!
So, n = [138/7] + [138/49], where [x] = maximum integer function
So, n = 19 + 2 =21
Ans 2: (b)
Do Prime factorization of 1430
i.e. 1430 = 13 x 11 x 5 x 2
n! must be 13 or greater since before 13, n! do not contain any 13.
So, the answer must be n = 13 (13! Will contain at least one 5, one 2, one 11 and one 13)
Ans 3: (a)
When 54 i.e. 625 divided by 626, the remainder is -1.
591 = (54x22) x53 = (62522) x125
Rem (591/626) = Rem {(62522) x125/ 626} = Rem {(-1)22 x125/626} = 125
Ans 4: (c)
2n has 8 factors. So, 2n must be of the form of one of the following:
2n = axbxc (no of factors = 2x2x2 = 8, here a, b and c are prime numbers)
Or
2n = axb3 (no of factors = 2x4 = 8, here a and b are prime numbers)
It is clear from here a= 2.
3n has 6 factors. So, 3n must be of the form of one of the following:
3n = b5 (no of factors = (5+1) = 6, where b is a prime numbers)
Or
3n = cxb2 (no of factors = 2x3 = 6, here c and b are prime numbers)
It is clear from here b = 3.
Here c will be a prime number other than 2 and 3.
Case 1:
2n = ax b3= 2n = 2x33; both cases of 3n will not be possible. So 2n cannot be ax b3.
Case 2:
2n = axbxc = 2x3xc; 3n = cxb2 = cx32 is possible
So, n = 3xc
6n = 2x32×c
No of factors = (1+1) x (2+1) x (1+1) = 2x3x2 = 12
Ans 5: 10 possible pairs are there.
Solution is as follows:
Let x = h x a; y = h x b, where h is HCF of x and y; a and b are co-primes
LCM = h x a x b
ATQ
h x a x b – h = 42
h (a x b - 1) = 42
H | (a x b - 1) | a x b | Possibility of a and b |
1 | 42 | 43 | (1, 43) |
2 | 21 | 22 | (1, 22), (2, 11) |
3 | 14 | 15 | (1, 15), (3, 5) |
6 | 7 | 8 | (1, 8) |
7 | 6 | 7 | (1, 7) |
14 | 3 | 4 | (1, 4) |
21 | 2 | 3 | (1, 3) |
42 | 1 | 2 | (1, 2) |
Total possible pairs in a and b are 10.
Therefore, 10 pairs in x and y exist.
Ans 6: (d)
Take the HCF of the number of pairs of shoes and divide the total number of pair of shoes by HCF to find the minimum number of boxes required.
HCF (16, 64, 48, 88, 92, 60, 120, 44) = 4
Number of boxes are required = (16+64+48+88+92+60+120+44)/4 = 133
Since n is even, unit digit of 42n + 1 = 4 (Since 4^odd is always gives 4 as unit digit)
and unit digit of 4n = 6 (Since 4odd is always gives 6 as unit digit)
Ans 7: (c)
Price is increased by 30% means, if initial price was Rs 10 then new price will be Rs. 13
E2 (New Expenditure) = E1 (old Expenditure)
Using,
E2/E1 = (New Price/ Old Price) x (New Consumption/ Old Consumption)
1 = 13/10 x(New Consumption/ Old Consumption)
So, (New Consumption/ Old Consumption) = 10/13
We can say consumption will reduce from 13 to 10 i.e. 23.07%
Ans 8: (b)
Let there are 100x and 100y men and women respectively (Age more than 18 yrs)
Married Men = Married Women
i.e. 36x = 45y
So, x = 5y/4
Total Men = 100x = 100x5y/4 = 125y
Total Population (more than 18yrs) = 125y + 100y = 225y
Men = 125y × 100/225y % = 55.55%.
Ans 9: (d)
Cost of AC-III berth = Rs 2000
Cost of AC-II berth = Rs 2400
Cost of AC-I berth = Rs 2880
Maximum revenue is when all the berths are filled
Revenue from AC-III Coaches = 3x64x2000 = Rs 384000
Revenue from AC-II Coaches = 6x45x2400 = Rs 648000
Revenue from AC-I Coaches = 4x24x2880 = Rs 276480
Total revenue = Rs 384000 + Rs 648000 + Rs 276480 = Rs 1308480
Ans 10: (b)
Revenue from AC-I coaches = Rs 276480
Total Revenue = Rs. 1308480
Share of AC-I = 276480 × 100/1308480 = 21.13%
Part-B: LRDI Sets For CAT 2025
Direction (Q1-Q3):
The graph below informs about the total area and the population density for 8 different countries. The area of all countries is the same for the two years 2002 and 2008 and is shown by the bar graph, read off from the right-hand Y-axis. The population density is dividing the total population of the country by the area and is depicted by the line graphs and is read off the left-hand Y-axis. The two line graphs refer to the population density in the years 2002 and 2008.
Q1. How many countries had a higher population in 2008 as compared to 2002?
8
7
6
Cannot be determined.
Q2. Find the increase in the population of F from 2002 to 2008.
5.44 mn
5.44 lacs
5,440
Cannot be determined
Q3. The country with the largest population in 2008 among the given countries is
A
E
F
Cannot be determined
Population Density = \text {$\frac{Population}{Area}$}
Thus, the Population of a country can be found by multiplying the population density by the area.
CAT Practice Papers: Answers And Solutions
Part B (LRDI)
1. c
Since for all countries, the area remains the same over the two years, 2002 and 2008, then if population density has increased from 2002 to 2008, the population has increased and if population density has decreased, then the population has decreased. The number of countries having a population density in 2008 more than that in 2002 is 6 (except B and E)
2. a
The increase in the population of F = (70 – 62) × 680,000 i.e. 8 × 680,000 = 5,440,000 i.e. 5.44 mn.
3. b
Since the area has remained the same in 2002 and 2008, the percentage increase in the population is the same as the percentage increase in the population density. Thus, the required percentage growth is percentage growth from 46 to 56 i.e. a decrease of 10/46 i.e., 10/46 x100 = 21.73%
The country with the largest population is going to be one that has a higher population density as well as a higher area. Looking for this combination in the graph, the choices are narrowed down to E and F. (Each of the rest of the countries has both the area and the population density lower than one of these two countries)
Population of E in 2008 = 76 × 600 = 45600 thousand.
Population of F in 2008 = 70 × 680 = 47600 thousand.
Thus, in 2008, the highest population is F.
Directions for questions 4 to 7: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
The following table gives the details of the production of 4 crops in India from the years 2007 to 2010. Winter and Summer refer to two different seasons of sowing and harvesting in the year. All 4 crops are produced in both seasons and the break-up across the two seasons is also given in the table.
Further, the table also gives the yield of the crops across the seasons and the years. Yield is defined as the production of the crop per hectare of the area under cultivation.
2007 | 2008 | 2009 | 2010 | ||||||
Season | prod. | Yield | prod. | Yield | prod. | Yield | prod. | Yield | |
Rice | Winter | 74.47 | 1.91 | 76.7 | 1.88 | 80.2 | 2.12 | 78.25 | 2.05 |
Summer | 11.25 | 3.02 | 12.6 | 2.98 | 12 | 2.88 | 12.5 | 3.15 | |
Jowar | Winter | 4.18 | 1.03 | 4.6 | 0.96 | 4.88 | 1.11 | 5.12 | 0.9 |
Summer | 2.96 | 0.6 | 3.4 | 0.65 | 3.2 | 0.7 | 3.8 | 0.75 | |
Maize | Winter | 11.44 | 1.74 | 10.4 | 1.76 | 9.1 | 1.8 | 12.5 | 1.85 |
Summer | 2.58 | 3.22 | 1.9 | 2.87 | 3.5 | 3.08 | 3.96 | 3.2 | |
Pulses | Winter | 4.94 | 0.45 | 4.7 | 0.45 | 5.11 | 0.55 | 4.98 | 0.55 |
Summer | 8.41 | 0.72 | 7.9 | 0.74 | 7.5 | 0.75 | 8.2 | 0.78 | |
Production figures are in million tonnes and the Yield is in tons/hectare.
Q4. In 2008, for how many of the four crops is the yield in the summer season more than the yield in the Winter season?
1
2
3
4
Q5. In which year did the area under cultivation of Rice in the Winter season increase by the greatest rate?
2007
2008
2009
2010
Q6. Arrange the following in increasing order of their magnitudes
I. The area under cultivation of Jowar in the Summer season in the year 2009
II. the area under cultivation of Maize in the Winter season in the year 2007
III. the area under cultivation of Pulses in the Summer season in the year 2010
I,II, III
I, III, II
II, III, I
III, II, I
Q7. The area under cultivation of which crop was the highest in the Winter season of 2008?
Rice
Jowar
Maize
Pulses
CAT Practice Papers: Answers And Solutions
Part B (LRDI)
Solutions:
Since 
, and we are given Production and Yield figures, so re-arranging the relation to get area, we have 
. With the units given, we will get the area in million hectares.
4. c
Just check the table where the yield in second row is more then the yield in the first row in 2008
We see that for Rice, Maize and Pulses, the yield in Summer is more than the yield in Winter.
5. b
The area under cultivation of rice in Winter season in successive years can be found as 
. And we have to find in which year the growth rate is the greatest. Just by solving the above fraction, we found that in 2008 we have the highest growth rate
6. a
I. Area = 
= 4.46
II. Area = =6.4
III. Area = 
=10.51
Thus, increasing order will be I, II, III
7. a
The area for Rice, Jowar, Maize and Pulses is found as 
Part-C : VARC for CAT 2025
In the questions below, find the phrase with error.
Q1: As Franklin ran (a)/ next the street, he wondered (b)/ what he should buy.(c)/ No Error (d)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Ans: B.
“Along the street” should be there in place of “next the street”
Q2. Hardly had he visited(a)/ his friend’s house(b) when got invited(c). No Error(d)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Ans: A
In interrogative sentences, the first form of the verb should be used.
‘Visit’ should be there
Q3. This view has been taken (a)/ by one of the ablest persons (b)/ who has written on this subject (c)/. No error(d)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Ans. C
‘Have’ in place of ‘has’ should be there. (Plural verb should come with plural noun)
Q4. Due to population, Indian(a)/ agriculture are in pressure to raise(b)/ more and more crops. (c) /No Error(d)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Ans: B
‘Under pressure’ will be there in place of ‘in pressure’.
Q5. We must have(a)/ sympathy for the needy (b)/ and the poor. (c)/ No Error(d)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Ans: D
for the needy (use of definite article)
Q6. Prince Charles is a heir (a)/ to the throne(b)/ of Great Britain. (c)/ No Error(d)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Ans. A
‘an’ in place of ’a’ due to the vowel sound of an heir.
Q7. The roads of Agra(a)/ are wider and cleaner(b)/ than Noida. (c)/ No Error (d)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Ans. C
“than those of Noida” will be the correct phrase. (Comparison should be with similar things.)
Q8. The teacher asked(a)/ the student’s father to (b)/ put his sign on the report card. (c)/ No Error(d)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Ans. C
‘Signature’ in place of ‘sign’
Hope everyone learned the concepts and will practice more!
Keep practicing, keep learning, see you on Day 9
Thank you
All the Best
Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs)
1. How to score 99+ percentile in CAT?
In order to achieve 99+ percentile, the candidates need to excel in all three sections, improve their time management skills, and solve 30–40 full-length mocks with a thorough analysis. Consistency, revising weak points, and implementing an exam-day plan for every section are essential to securing a high percentile.
2. How to improve accuracy in CAT Logical Reasoning and Data Interpretation (LRDI)?
Solve puzzles, seating arrangements, and DI caselets on a regular basis to build logical reasoning. Practice various sets of LRDI on a daily basis to build speed and pattern recognition. Mock tests and previous year questions assist in enhancing accuracy and time management.
3. What are the most important topics for CAT Quantitative Aptitude?
The most important subjects are Arithmetic (Percentages, Profit & Loss, Time-Speed-Distance), Algebra (Quadratic & Linear Equations), Number System, Geometry, and Mensuration. These are often asked in CAT and thus must be emphasized more while preparing.
4. How to prepare for CAT while working full-time?
Working professionals need to adopt an intelligent study schedule, allocating 2-3 hours every day on weekdays and extended study sessions on weekends. Focus on high-weightage subjects, adopt online courses or mobile apps for flexible learning, and practice sectional and full-length mock tests to monitor progress.
5. How should I start preparing for CAT 2025?
Start with knowing the CAT syllabus and exam pattern. Concentrate on developing a strong base in Quantitative Aptitude (QA), Data Interpretation & Logical Reasoning (DILR), and Verbal Ability & Reading Comprehension (VARC). Develop a systematic study plan, practice mock tests on a regular basis, and review your performance to strengthen weak areas.
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Questions related to CAT
Have a question related to CAT ?
Although, it's very unlikely that you will secure a seat in top ABM with CAT 67 percentile. Here's is a breakdown to your question:
· CAT Percentile vs. Score: A CAT score of 67 typically translates to a percentile in the range of 90-95 percentile based on the provided data from previous years. While this is a decent score overall, it falls short of the cutoffs for most top-tier ABM programs.
· Cutoffs for Top ABM Institutes:
- IIM Lucknow: For their PGP-ABM program, the qualifying CAT cutoff for the general category is around 85 percentile . However, the actual cutoff for shortlisting for the Written Ability Test (WAT) and Personal Interview (PI) stages is likely to be higher.
- IIM Ahmedabad: While they also offer an ABM program (PGP-FABM), their minimum qualifying CAT cutoff is around 80 percentile , but the final admission cutoffs are usually much higher, often in the 99+ percentile range for general candidates.
- MANAGE (National Institute of Agricultural Extension Management): Their cutoff in CAT percentile has been around 70 for the general category in recent years. With a 67 percentile, you might have a slim chance here, but it's still competitive.
- CCS NIAM (National Institute of Agricultural Marketing, Jaipur): They consider CAT scores with a significant weightage (30-51% in their selection criteria). While they don't explicitly state a cutoff, it's reasonable to assume it would be higher than 67 percentile for a good chance of admission.
· Overall Good CAT Score: Generally, a CAT percentile of 90 and above is considered a good score for securing admission to decent MBA programs in India. For top-tier institutes, a percentile of 95 and above is often preferred.
· MBA Colleges Accepting 60-70 Percentile: While there are MBA colleges that accept CAT scores in the 60-70 percentile range, these are generally not the top-ranked or most sought-after ABM programs. The focus of those lists is on general MBA programs, not specifically ABM.
While securing a seat in ABM can be tough, you can research about other colleges, consider other examinations, to improve your application profile.
You Got This !
Aman Kar 16 April,2025
Hello,
achieving a 99.99 pecentile in the CAT exam significantly enhances your prospects for admission to JBIMS, which evaluates candidates using an application rating(AR) score, which includes
-entrance exam score (CAT/MH-CET/CMAT) : 60% weightage
-Past Academic Record (PAR) : 15% weightage (https://cracku.in/colleges/jbims/admission-process/?utm_source=chatgpt.com)
-Extra-curricular Activities/Work Experience : 20% weightage (https://jbims.edu/uploads/announcement/Revised_M_Sc__Finance_Admission_Procedure_Batch_2024-26.pdf?utm_source=chatgpt.com)
-Diversity (Academic/Gender): 5% weightage
while ahigh CAT percentile is crucial, a lower academic record may impact your overall AR score. Nonetheless, exceptional performance in other areas, such as entrance exams and extracurricular activities, can help offset weaker academic credentials. it's advisable to review JBIMS's detailed admission criteria and consider strengthening other aspects of your application to enhance your chances
Riya Dhoot 10 April,2025
To find the 2024 MHT CET answer key, you'll need to check the official Maharashtra State Common Entrance Test Cell website. This is the primary source for all official announcements and documents related to the MHT CET exam. After the exam concludes, the CET Cell typically releases a provisional answer key.
Once released, the provisional answer key will likely be available as a downloadable PDF file. You'll need to navigate to the official website, look for the MHT CET section, and find the link related to the answer key. This link might be labelled "MHT CET 2024 Answer Key" or something similar.
After downloading the answer key, you can compare your responses with the official answers. If you find any discrepancies or have objections, the CET Cell usually provides a window for raising objections. You'll likely need to pay a specified fee for each objection raised. The official website will provide instructions on how to submit your objections, which may involve logging into your candidate portal and following the provided steps.
Finally, after considering all objections, the CET Cell will publish a final answer key. This final version is considered definitive, and the MHT CET results will be based on it. Keep an eye on the official website for all updates and announcements regarding the 2024 answer key.
I hope this helps.
SUKRITI GUPTA 13 April,2025
Greetings! Here's a detailed response to your query
Okay, so you're a bit confused about what to put in those CAT, FMS, DSE, and IIFT forms regarding your 12th scores. Since you did CBSE, they usually only consider your final 12th standard marks.
Even though you did great in 11th, scoring 495 out of 500, for these entrance exam forms, they're specifically asking about your 12th board exam marks .You mentioned you got 400 out of 500 in 12th, which comes out to 80%.
Therefore, when filling out the forms for CAT, FMS, DSE, and IIFT, you should enter 80% as your 12th percentage. The aggregate of 11th and 12th isn't typically what they're looking for in these sections. They want to know how you performed in your final board exams. So, stick with the 80% from your 12th results. Good luck with your applications!
SUKRITI GUPTA 05 April,2025
Greetings! Here's a detailed response to your query:-
Determination of the best time to start the journey of CAT examination is based on individual factors like your current skill level, knowledge ,potential, learning pace and availability. To give yourself the best chance of success on the CAT exam , which usually takes place in November, it's advisable to begin studying between January and March of that same year. This 8 to 12-month preparation window is widely recommended by experts. But if you're managing your college along with the CAT preparations make sure you start from 2nd year onwards. It will hep you manage stress and you'll have ample amount of time to get along with the syllabus , pattern and various practice and mocks .
You'll be able to build a strong foundation in each sections and be able to know your strengths and weaknesses in different topics. The CAT syllabus is extensive, and early preparation allows for thorough coverage. Assess your learning speed and adjust your preparation timeline accordingly.
Essentially, while the ideal start time is subjective, beginning your CAT preparation well in advance is generally considered the most effective strategy for achieving optimal results.
SUKRITI GUPTA 01 April,2025
Popular CAT Questions
Directions for question :
M/s Deloitte Touche Tohmatsu Limited, one of the top four audit and accounting firms in the world with headquarters at London, UK, and with an operational presence in 153 countries, hires Management Trainees (MT) from all the premier management institutes of India thrice every year, in the months of January, May and September.
Each new group of Management Trainees (MT) have to go through a four month rigorous training schedule, after which they have to pass through a test consisting of a written assessment and a case-analysis. The top hundred ranked Management Trainees (MT) based on the performance in the test are confirmed as Management Executives (ME). The rest are given the opportunity of undergoing the training for four months one more time along with the next batch of Management Trainees (MT) and then passing through the subsequent test consisting of the written assessment and case-analysis. The Management Trainee (MT) who fails to get confirmed as a Management Executive (ME) the second time is fired.
The scatter-graph below depicts the number of Management Trainees (MT) at Deloitte taking the tests from January 2020 till May 2022, and the vis-à-vis hired Management Trainees (MT) at Deloitte who were fired :
It is also known that for the month of September 2019 at Deloitte, 96 hired Management Trainees (MT) failed to be confirmed as a Management Executive (ME) the first time, and that 36 hired Management Trainees (MT) were fired.
Question :
In which test did the minimum number of Management Trainees (MT) get confirmed as a Management Executive (ME) in the second attempt ?
Option: 1
September 2020
Option: 2
May 2021
Option: 3
January 2021
Option: 4
January 2022
Directions for question:
The bar-graph given below shows the foreign exchange reserves of Nepal (in million Rupees) from 2014 to 2021. Answer the following questions based on the graph :
Question:
What was the percentage increase (rounded to the nearest integer, if deemed necessary) in the foreign exchange reserves in 2020 over 2016 ?
Option: 1 None
Option: 2 None
Option: 3 None
Option: 4 None
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Business Development Executive
A Business Development Executive (BDE) is a professional responsible for identifying growth opportunities and fostering strategic partnerships to enhance a company's market position. Typically, a BDE conducts market research, analyses industry trends, and identifies potential clients or business prospects. He or she plays a crucial role in developing and implementing sales strategies to achieve revenue targets.
A BDE often collaborates with cross-functional teams, including marketing and product development, to align business objectives. Strong communication, negotiation, and relationship-building skills are essential for success in this role. BDE strives to expand the company's customer base, drive sales, and contribute to overall organisational growth in a dynamic and competitive business environment.
3 Jobs Available
Content Marketing Specialist
Content Marketing Specialists are also known as Content Specialists. They are responsible for crafting content, editing and developing it to meet the requirements of digital marketing campaigns. To ensure that the material created is consistent with the overall aims of a digital marketing campaign, content marketing specialists work closely with SEO and digital marketing professionals.
3 Jobs Available
Sales Manager
A sales manager is a revenue-generating source for a company. Any organisation or company which sells a commodity or service requires sales to generate revenue. A Sales manager is a professional responsible for supervising the sales team. An Individual as a sales manager works closely with salespeople, assigns sales territories, sets quotas, mentors the members of the sales, assigns sales training, and builds a sales plan.
The Sales Manager work also includes hiring and laying off sales personnel after evaluating his or her work performance. In bigger entities, sales quotas and plans are usually set at the executive level. He or she is responsible for overseeing the set target or quotas met by salespeople or upholding any policy. He or she guides his or her fellow salespeople and allows them to sell.
2 Jobs Available
Business Analyst
Individuals who opt for a career as a business analyst look at how a company operates. He or she conducts research and analyses data to improve his or her knowledge about the company. This is required so that an individual can suggest the company strategies for improving their operations and processes.
In a business analyst job role a lot of analysis is done, things are learned from past mistakes and the successful strategies are enhanced further. A business analyst goes through real-world data in order to provide the most feasible solutions to an organisation. Students can pursue Business Analytics to become Business Analysts.
2 Jobs Available
Marketing Manager
A marketing manager is a person who oversees a company or product marketing. He or she can be in charge of multiple programmes or goods or can be in charge of one product. He or she is enthusiastic, organised, and very diligent in meeting financial constraints. He or she works with other team members to produce advertising campaigns and decides if a new product or service is marketable.
A Marketing manager plans and executes marketing initiatives to create demand for goods and services and increase consumer awareness of them. A marketing manager prevents unauthorised statements and informs the public that the business is doing everything to investigate and fix the line of products. Students can pursue an MBA in Marketing Management courses to become marketing managers.
2 Jobs Available
SEO Analyst
An SEO Analyst is a web professional who is proficient in the implementation of SEO strategies to target more keywords to improve the reach of the content on search engines. He or she provides support to acquire the goals and success of the client’s campaigns.
2 Jobs Available
Digital Marketing Executive
Digital marketing is growing, diverse, and is covering a wide variety of career paths. Each job function aids in the development of effective digital marketing strategies and techniques. The aims and objectives of the individuals who opt for a career as a digital marketing executive are similar to those of a marketing professional: to build brand awareness, promote company services or products, and increase conversions. Individuals who opt for a career as Digital Marketing Executives, unlike traditional marketing companies, communicate effectively through suitable technology platforms.
2 Jobs Available
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