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CAT Prep 2024: Your Pathway to Excellence Through Practice Set Questions - Day 44
Edited By Team Careers360 | Updated on Jan 08, 2025 06:44 AM IST | #CAT
As you are aware, the CAT test 2025 for MBA 2026–2028 will be conducted probably in the month of November, 2025. In this article, we provide CAT sample questions for Day 44 in the ongoing Careers360 60-day preparation guide series for CAT 2025.
CAT Practice Set 2025
This article includes the subject- and topic-specific Sample questions and answers. Candidates must download the CAT mock test PDF and finish the mock test series from all three subjects to get the best idea of what the CAT exam 2025 requires. This CAT online practice set with detailed solutions is based on what we have covered in the last 43 days.
CAT 2025: VARC, DILR, and Quant: MCQs & Weightages | Chapter-wise MCQs
CAT 2025 Study Material: VARC | Quantitative Aptitude | 60 Days Study Material by Experts
Online MBA: Complete Guide | Top Ranked Colleges | Best Courses by Top Universities
These CAT sample papers can help you prepare well and crack the exam in 2025.
This CAT previous year question paper consists of three Sections:
Part- A consists of 7 questions.
Part- B consists of 9 questions.
Part- C consists of 10 questions.
CAT Mock Test Series Part- A: Quantitative Aptitude CAT Test Sample Papers
Q1. If O is the centre of the circle, find the value of x- (y+ z)
35°
47°
39°
0°
Ans: (d)
y = z (Angle made by the same arc on the same side of the circle are equal)
x = 2y (Angle made by an arc at centre is double of the angle made by the same arc on the same side of the circle)
So,
x- (y+ z) = 0
Q2. In the adjoining figure ⦟A = 72° and ⦟ABC = 88°, ⦟BQC
16°
8°
20°
32°
CAT 2025: VARC, DILR, and Quant MCQs & Weightages
Comprehensive CAT prep guide with focused practice on Verbal Ability, Data Interpretation & Logical Reasoning, and Quantitative Aptitude.
Download NowAns: (a)
⦟ADC = 180 - ⦟ABC (ABCD is a cyclic quadrilateral)
⦟ADC = 180 - ⦟ABC = 180 – 88 = 920
⦟BQC = 180 - ⦟ADC - ⦟A (sum of all angles of a triangle is 1800)
⦟BQC = 180 – 92 – 72 = 160
Q3. If ABC is a quarter circle of radius 1 cm and a circle is inscribed in it, find the radius of the smaller circle inscribed.
– 1+2√2
1/2
– 1+ √2
1 – √2
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Ans: [D]
OB = 1 – radius of inscribed circle
Dimensions will be as shown in the figure;
r2 + r2 = (1-r)2
2r2 = 1 + r2 – 2r
r2 + 2r – 1 = 0
On solving; r = (√2 – 1) cm
Q4. How many isosceles triangles (having integral length) are possible if the sum of two of its sides is 10?
11
14
15
23
Ans: (B)
Case 1: Sum of two equal sides = 10
Sides of the triangle should be 5, 5, a
Also, a < (5+ 5)
⇒ a = [1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9] ? 9 possible triangles are there.
Case 2: Sum of two unequal sides = 10
Sides of the triangle should be a, a, 10- a
a + a > 10- a and a < 10
3a > 10
a > 10/3 but less than 10; So, a can be 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9
If a =5 then other sides will also be 5 and 5. This case is already taken in Case1.
Here, five such triangles are possible.
Therefore, the answer is 9+ 5 = 14.
Q5. An equilateral triangle of side 6 cm, has its corners cut away to form a hexagon with all sides equal. Then the length of each side of the hexagon, in cms, is
2√2
1/2
2
√2
Ans: [c]
A regular Hexagon PQRSTUV is formed as shown in the figure.
Interior angle of a regular hexagon = 1200
So, ⦟ ATS = ⦟AST = 180- 120 = 600
This makes triangle ATS an equilateral triangle
⇒ AT = TS = AS
Also, TS = TU = UP
From this we can say, sides of Triangle ABC is cut in such a way that
Side of regular Hexagon = Side of triangle /3 = 6/3 = 2 cm.
Q6. D, E, and F are the mid-points of the sides BC, CA and AB respectively of an equilateral triangle ABC. Determine the ratio of the perimeter and area of triangle DEF.
1: 4
1: 2
2: 3
4√3: 1
Ans: [D]
Let the side of triangle ABC = 2 cm.
Then, side of triangle DEF = 1 cm; Area = 34 cm2; Perimeter = 1x 3 = 3 cm.
Perimeter(DEF)Area (DEF)= 3 3/4 = 4√3: 1
Q7. One card is picked from the deck of cards which turned out to be red. What is the probability of it being a face card?
3/13
3/26
1/13
2/13
Ans: [a]
Total Outcome = 26 (Red Cards)
Possible outcomes = 6 (face cards of red colour)
Probability = 6/26 = 3/13
CAT Online Practice Paper Part B: LRDI (Logical Reasoning and Data Interpretation) CAT Previous Year Question Paper
Data Sufficiency (Q1-Q3):
Direction:
Statement I alone is sufficient to answer this question but statement II is not sufficient to answer this question.
Statement II alone is sufficient to answer this question but statement I is not sufficient to answer this question.
None is sufficient to answer this question.
Both statements together are sufficient to answer this question
Q1. On which day Sumit goes to Delhi?
Statement I: According to Sumit’s sister Sumit goes to Delhi after Tuesday and before Sunday but he did not go to Delhi on Thursday.
Statement II: According to Sumit’s father Sumit goes to Delhi after Monday and before Saturday.
Ans: [C]
Statement I:
Using the given information we can say that Sumit goes on to trip on one of the days Wednesday, Friday or Saturday. Hence, data in statement I alone is not sufficient.
Statement II:
Using the given information we can say that Sumit can go on to trip on any of the days among Tuesday, Wednesday, Thursday and Friday.
Hence, data in statement II alone is also not sufficient.
Combining statements I and II:
From Statement I, we figured out that Sumit goes on to trip on one of the days Wednesday, Friday and Saturday.
From Statement II, we figured out that Sumit can go on to trip on any of the days among Tuesday, Wednesday, Thursday and Friday.
After, compiling the above information we can say that Sumit goes to Delhi on either Wednesday or Friday.
Hence, data in statements I and II together are not sufficient.
Q2. How is Sonal definitely related to Pramila?
Statement I: Sonal's mother is the sister of Pramila's father.
Statement II: Pramila is the daughter of Sonal's grandfather's only son.
Ans: [C]
Statement I: Sonal's mother is the sister of Pramila's father.
Here, we can observe that a direct relationship between Sonal and Pramila can't be established as Sonal's gender is not known. Clearly, Statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
Statement II: Pramila is the daughter of Sonal's grandfather's only son.
Here, a direct relationship between Sonal and Pramila can't be established as it's not given as Sonal's paternal or maternal grandfather is being referred to here. Because of this, the statement stays ambiguous.
Clearly, Statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
Combining Statements, I and II:
Statement I: Sonal's mother is the sister of Pramila's father.
Statement II: Pramila is the daughter of Sonal's grandfather's only son.
Even if we combine the two statements above, we do not get the gender of Sonal and therefore statements I and II together are not sufficient to reach the answer.
Q3. Five persons – Arun, Bimal, Chaman, Deepak and Eshan, each earn a different amount of money. Who among these persons earns the second highest?
Statement I: Only Chaman earns more than Bimal.
Statement II: Deepak and Eshan earn less than Arun.
Ans: [A]
Statement I: Only Chaman earns more than Bimal.
After using the above references, we have
Order of Earnings:
Chaman > Bimal > ____ > ____ > ____
Here, we can say that Bimal earns the second highest.
Clearly, Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question.
Statement II: Deepak and Eshan earn less than Arun.
After using the above references, we have
Order of Earnings:
Arun > Deepak/Eshan
Here, we have no sure information about the earnings of any of these persons.
Clearly, Statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
Here, the data in Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question.
Hence, the correct answer is option A.
Direction: (Q4- Q6)
India, Pakistan, Malaysia, South Korea, Japan and China are to take part in the Asian Hockey Championship. In the first round, each team plays each of the other teams exactly once. At this stage, two points are awarded for a win, one point for a draw and zero points for a loss. After all the matches are played, the top two teams, in terms of the points scored, advance to the finals. In case two or more teams end up with the same number of points, the team with a better goal difference is placed higher.
Q4. The total number of matches in the tournament is
21
22
15
16
Ans: [D]
The total number of matches in the tournament = 5 + 4 + 3 + 2 + 1 + 1 (finals) = 16
Q5. What is the minimum number of points with which a team can advance to the finals?
6
5
4
3
Ans: [C]
The minimum number of points would be required when one of the teams scores the maximum points and the remaining teams equally share all the remaining points. Total points available = 15 × 2 = 30; Maximum points for a team = 5 × 2 = 10. The remaining 20 points can be shared by all five teams, and one of those teams with four points would advance to the finals on the basis of the goal difference.
Q6. What is the maximum number of points that can be scored by a team, which failed to advance to the finals?
8
9
6
7
Ans: [A]
The worst-case scenario for a team happens when three teams score the highest points and one of those teams is eliminated. Points scored by the last three teams (points only among themselves) = 6; remaining points = 24. These points can be shared by the teams, and one of the teams with 8 points could be eliminated on the basis of goal difference.
Direction: (Q7- Q9)
128 players take part in a Grand Slam tennis tournament. The tournament is scheduled to be held in seven rounds and in each round, in a match between two players, the winner advances to the next round and the loser is eliminated. There are no draws or byes in the tournament. The players who take part in the tournament are seeded from 1 to 128, with seed 1 being the top seed, seed 2 next and so on. The matches are scheduled in such a way that in any round, assuming there are no upsets, the highest-seeded player plays against the lowest-seeded player at that point, the next highest-seeded player always plays against the next lowest-seeded player and so on. An upset is said to happen when a lower-seeded player beats a higher-seeded player. The schedule of matches in the next round remains unchanged in case of an upset in a round, with the only difference being that the player who caused the upset advances to the next round and takes the designated place of the player he upset.
Q7. In case of no upsets in the tournament, in which round would the player seeded 10 faces a player seeded higher than him?
2nd round
3rd round
4th round
5th round
Ans: [C]
A player seeded 10, assuming no upsets is expected to reach the last 16 stages, i.e., the fourth round. In this round, he would face the player seeded 7 and would be eliminated.
Q8. How many players in the tournament won exactly one match?
15
24
30
None of these
Ans: [D]
The players who won exactly one match are those who won the first round but lost in the second round, i.e., 64 – 32 = 32 players.
Q9. Assuming no upsets, which player beat seed No.25?
Seed 8
Seed 6
Seed 1
Seed 14
Ans: [A]
The player seeded 25 would have lost to the player seeded 8.
CAT Mock Test Part C: VARC (Verbal Ability & Reading Comprehension) Questions
Direction (Q1-Q3): There are errors in three out of four parts. You must choose the grammatically correct part as your answer.
Q1: But they could strived harder (a)/ to upheld democratic rights (b)/ and constitutional principles at home (c)/. That is critical in promote sustainable development. (d)/ none correct (e)
(a)
(b)
(c )
(d)
(e)
Ans: [C]
Explanation: they could strive harder to uphold democratic rights and constitutional principles at home. That is critical to promote sustainable development.
Part (a): strive will replace strived
Part (b): uphold will replace upheld
Part (d): to will replace in
Thus, option c is the correct option.
Q2: The agreement with Mehta was towards (a)/ partial assignment of the rights to made records (b)/ in gramophone and in talkies and no other (c)/ sound produced broadcast device’ for a lump sum of Rs 450 and a royalty of one anna per record sold (d)/ none correct(e).
(a)
(b)
(c )
(d)
(e)
Ans: [A]
Explanation: The agreement with Mehta was towards ‘partial assignment of the rights to make records in gramophone and in talkies and my other sound-producing broadcast device’ for a lump sum of Rs 450 and a royalty of one anna per record sold.
Part (b) : made will replace make.
Part (c) : any will replace no
Part (d) : producing will replace produced
Thus, option B is the correct option.
Q3: The past shaped the way we are (a)/ today not only the world we grow out (b)/ in, where we struggled with (c)/ conflicts the seeds of whom were sown long ago. (d)/ none correct (e)
(a)
(b)
(c )
(d)
(e)
Ans: [A]
Explanation: the past shaped the way we are today- not only the world we grow up in, where we struggle with conflicts the seeds of which were sown long ago.
Part (b): up will replace out
Part (c): struggle will replace struggled
Part (d): which will replace whom
Thus, option B is the correct option
Direction (Q4-Q6): One part contains an error. You must choose the grammatically incorrect part as your answer.
Q4: Meanwhile, in an effort to keep (a)/ its flock together, the part herd (b)/ its elected partymen and two (c)/ independent legislators to a resort on the outskirts of the city. (d)/ no error (e)
(a)
(b)
(c )
(d)
(e)
Ans: [B]
Explanation: part (b) has an error as herd will get replaced by herded.
Q5: It was a long wait for the tribals (a)/ from the morning for their near and dear (b)/. They even refused to take (c)/ breakfast and water as all of them were stricken of grief (d)/ no error (e)
(a)
(b)
(c )
(d)
(e)
Ans: [D]
Explanation: part (d) has an error as ‘stricken of’ will get replaced by ‘stricken with’.
Q6: You deferred the case many a (a)/ times for the Centre. If that (b)/ had not happened, we (c)/ would not had been in this situation (d)/ No error (e)
(a)
(b)
(c )
(d)
(e)
Ans: [D]
Explanation: part (d) has an error as have will replace had.
Q7: Pulling away the boat is not difficult (a)/ if the latest equipment is with (b)/us and if the boat (c)/ has not overturned. (d)/ No error (e)
(a)
(b)
(c )
(d)
(e)
Ans: [A]
Explanation: part (a) has an error as ‘pulling away’ will get replaced by ‘pulling out’.
Direction (Q8- Q10): Choose the correct option and complete the given sentences.
Q8. The tunnel ___ for extracting smoke and stale air and for infusing fresh air. It will have state-of-the-art monitoring and control systems for security.
Will be checked
Will be blocked
Will have forced ventilation
Will have a corridor
Will soon make to prepare
Ans. Option C
Explanation: will have forced ventilation as the tunnel which has been mentioned in the statement will have ventilation that will force smoke and stale air out of it. The word “infusing” makes it easy to choose.
Q9. When India’s largest political party pursues such a strategy and finds it electorally rewarding, it ______ by other political parties.
May be rejected
May be emulated
May be ignored
May be protested
May be gone through
Ans. Option B
Explanation: may be emulated as the political strategy which is electorally rewarding has been talked about in the context of the statement, it is obvious that it may be emulated/ copied by the other parties.
Q10. The argument for a uniform civil code (UCC) ______ in a modern nation-state as long as it is rational, non-discriminatory and promotes social equality and gender justice.
Is invoking
Is provoking
Is rescind
Is void
Is irrefutable
Ans. Option E
Explanation: This is irrefutable as the Uniform Civil Code can’t be disapproved.
Hope everybody were able to understand and solve the practice questions
Day 45 will be uploaded tomorrow. Till then,
Keep practising, keep Learning
Thank you!
All the best!
Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs)
1. How should students prepare for Reading Comprehension and Verbal Ability for CAT?
Read newspapers and novels daily.
Solve CAT sample papers.
Learn 5-10 new words meaning and make sentences from those words every day.
2. Do questions repeat in CAT?
No, exact questions don’t repeat, but similar concepts might be tested.
3. Is it challenging to crack CAT?
It all depends on how well you prepare. It is considerably simpler to deal with the CAT exam if you begin early, have a good study strategy, and follow it.
4. What is the best way to practice for CAT?
Solve mock tests regularly
focus on time management
improve accuracy and speed while doing questions
5. Do these practice sets help in improving your performance in the CAT exam?
Yes, these practices will help you to improve your accuracy and time management in exam preparation. Also analyzing these tests can help you score high.
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Questions related to CAT
Have a question related to CAT ?
The CUSAT CAT previous year question papers are available on the Careers360 website. You can find question papers from 2012 to 2023, which can be downloaded in PDF format HERE
Additionally, the official website of Cochin University of Science and Technology (CUSAT) also provides previous year question papers. To access them, you can follow these steps:
- Visit the CUSAT official website - admissions.cusat.ac.in.
- Click on the resources tab from the homepage.
- Select the previous year's question papers from the drop-down menu.
- Select the Common Admission Test (CAT) question papers link.
- Now click on the B.Tech course.
By practicing with these previous year question papers, you can get familiar with the exam pattern, identify important topics, and improve your time management skills.
sadafreen356 28 March,2025
Hey Shathvika,
Let's dive deep into MBA Entrance Exams (Other than CAT)
1. XAT (Xavier Aptitude Test)
Conducted by: XLRI, Jamshedpur
Eligibility: Bachelor’s degree in any discipline.
Exam Pattern:
- Sections: Decision Making, Verbal & Logical Ability, Quantitative Ability & Data Interpretation, and General Knowledge.
- Duration: 3 hours.
- Marks: No negative marking for General Knowledge.
Key Highlights:
- The Decision-Making section tests analytical and situational judgment skills.
- General Knowledge is evaluated during interviews, not for percentile calculation.
Official Website: https://xatonline.in
---
2. SNAP (Symbiosis National Aptitude Test)
Conducted by: Symbiosis International (Deemed) University
Eligibility: Bachelor’s degree with 50% marks (45% for reserved categories).
Exam Pattern:
- Sections: General English, Quantitative, Data Interpretation & Data Sufficiency, and Analytical & Logical Reasoning.
- Duration: 1 hour.
- Marks: Total 60 marks (MCQs).
Key Highlights:
- Specifically for admission to Symbiosis institutes like SIBM Pune and SCMHRD.
- Easy-to-moderate difficulty level.
Official Website: https://snaptest.org
---
3. CMAT (Common Management Admission Test)
Conducted by: National Testing Agency (NTA)
Eligibility: Bachelor’s degree in any discipline.
Exam Pattern:
- Sections: Quantitative Techniques & Data Interpretation, Logical Reasoning, Language Comprehension, General Awareness, and Innovation & Entrepreneurship.
- Duration: 3 hours.
- Marks: 400 marks.
Key Highlights:
- Accepted by over 1,000 AICTE-approved institutes.
- Includes an optional Innovation & Entrepreneurship section.
Official Website: https://cmat.nta.nic.in
---
4. MAT (Management Aptitude Test)
Conducted by: All India Management Association (AIMA)
Eligibility: Bachelor’s degree in any discipline.
Exam Pattern:
- Sections: Language Comprehension, Mathematical Skills, Data Analysis & Sufficiency, Intelligence & Critical Reasoning, and Indian & Global Environment.
- Duration: 2.5 hours.
- Marks: 200 marks.
Key Highlights:
- Held multiple times a year in PBT, CBT, and IBT modes.
- Accepted by more than 600 MBA colleges in India.
Official Website: https://mat.aima.in
---
5. NMAT (NMIMS Management Aptitude Test)
Conducted by: Graduate Management Admission Council (GMAC)
Eligibility: Bachelor’s degree with 50% marks.
Exam Pattern:
- Sections: Language Skills, Quantitative Skills, and Logical Reasoning.
- Duration: 2 hours.
- Marks: 360 marks.
Key Highlights:
- Allows three attempts, with the best score considered.
- Accepted by NMIMS and partner universities worldwide.
Official Website: https://www.mba.com/exams/nmat
---
6. IIFT (Indian Institute of Foreign Trade)
Conducted by: National Testing Agency (NTA)
Eligibility: Bachelor’s degree (final-year students can also apply).
Exam Pattern:
- Sections: Quantitative Analysis, Reading Comprehension & Verbal Ability, Logical Reasoning & Data Interpretation, and General Knowledge.
- Duration: 2 hours.
- Marks: 300 marks.
Key Highlights:
- Specifically for IIFT’s flagship MBA in International Business.
- General Knowledge plays a significant role in shortlisting.
Official Website: https://iift.nta.nic.in
---
7. TISSNET (Tata Institute of Social Sciences National Entrance Test)
Conducted by: Tata Institute of Social Sciences
Eligibility: Bachelor’s degree.
Exam Pattern:
- Sections: English Proficiency, Mathematics & Logical Reasoning, and General Awareness.
- Duration: 100 minutes.
- Marks: 100 marks.
Key Highlights:
- Focused on social sciences, HRM, and public policy programs.
- General Awareness is crucial (with emphasis on current affairs).
Official Website: https://admissions.tiss.edu
---
8. MICAT (MICA Aptitude Test)
Conducted by: MICA, Ahmedabad
Eligibility: Bachelor’s degree and a valid CAT/XAT/GMAT score.
Exam Pattern:
- Sections: Psychometric Test, Verbal Ability, Quantitative Ability, General Awareness, Divergent-Convergent Thinking, and Descriptive Test.
- Duration: 2.5 hours.
Key Highlights:
- Psychometric Test is a qualifying section.
- Specifically for MICA’s flagship PGDM-C program in Strategic Marketing and Communications.
Official Website: https://www.mica.ac.in
---
9. GMAT (Graduate Management Admission Test)
Conducted by: Graduate Management Admission Council (GMAC)
Eligibility: No specific eligibility; bachelor’s degree recommended.
Exam Pattern:
- Sections: Analytical Writing, Integrated Reasoning, Quantitative Reasoning, and Verbal Reasoning.
- Duration: 3 hours 7 minutes.
- Marks: 800 (scaled score).
Key Highlights:
- Globally recognized for MBA programs.
- Popular for Indian B-schools like ISB, SPJIMR, and Great Lakes.
Official Website: https://www.mba.com
---
10. MAH-CET (Maharashtra Common Entrance Test)
Conducted by: Maharashtra State CET Cell
Eligibility: Bachelor’s degree with a minimum of 50% marks (45% for reserved categories).
Exam Pattern:
- Sections: Logical Reasoning, Abstract Reasoning, Quantitative Aptitude, and Verbal Ability & Reading Comprehension.
- Duration: 2.5 hours.
- Marks: 200 marks (MCQs).
Key Highlights:
- Accepted by top Maharashtra B-schools like JBIMS, SIMSREE, and PUMBA.
- Known for its speed-intensive nature with 200 questions in 150 minutes.
Official Website: https://cetcell.mahacet.org
Let me know if you have any doubts regarding a specific exam or any other query.
Have a nice day !!
RAJIV TIWARI 27 March,2025
Hello Ayush,
K.R. Mangalam University utilizes a blend of MCQs, descriptive formats, and practical assessments to evaluate student performance. The continuous evaluation system ensures that students are assessed regularly throughout the semester, contributing to a more comprehensive understanding of their academic progress.
Narendra Ranawat 26 March,2025
Hello,
Here are some simple tips to prepare for the CUSAT CAT exam:
1. Focus on Physics, Chemistry, and Maths (PCM).
2. Give equal time to all subjects.
3. Use NCERT Books as they are best for basics.
You can refer to following study materials for better practice :-
Hope it helps !
Prachi Kumari 26 March,2025
Hello there,
Yes, you can apply for CAT examination after completion of Doctor of Pharmacy (Pharm D) .
The Common Admission Test (CAT) has no restrictions regarding your educational background thus allowing you to submit your application following your completion of a Pharm. D degree.
The Common Admission Test permits candidates to take the exam after completing any undergraduate degree without any restrictions to the area of study. The professional doctoral degree of Pharm. D (Doctor of Pharmacy) functions as an equivalent to bachelor's level for CAT eligibility recognition.
Therefore, Candidates who received their Pharm. D degree can pursue the CAT exam application process based on their qualification standards.
Hope this will help!
Divyanshi Priya 22 March,2025
Popular CAT Questions
Directions for question :
M/s Deloitte Touche Tohmatsu Limited, one of the top four audit and accounting firms in the world with headquarters at London, UK, and with an operational presence in 153 countries, hires Management Trainees (MT) from all the premier management institutes of India thrice every year, in the months of January, May and September.
Each new group of Management Trainees (MT) have to go through a four month rigorous training schedule, after which they have to pass through a test consisting of a written assessment and a case-analysis. The top hundred ranked Management Trainees (MT) based on the performance in the test are confirmed as Management Executives (ME). The rest are given the opportunity of undergoing the training for four months one more time along with the next batch of Management Trainees (MT) and then passing through the subsequent test consisting of the written assessment and case-analysis. The Management Trainee (MT) who fails to get confirmed as a Management Executive (ME) the second time is fired.
The scatter-graph below depicts the number of Management Trainees (MT) at Deloitte taking the tests from January 2020 till May 2022, and the vis-à-vis hired Management Trainees (MT) at Deloitte who were fired :
It is also known that for the month of September 2019 at Deloitte, 96 hired Management Trainees (MT) failed to be confirmed as a Management Executive (ME) the first time, and that 36 hired Management Trainees (MT) were fired.
Question :
In which test did the minimum number of Management Trainees (MT) get confirmed as a Management Executive (ME) in the second attempt ?
Option: 1
September 2020
Option: 2
May 2021
Option: 3
January 2021
Option: 4
January 2022
Directions for question:
The bar-graph given below shows the foreign exchange reserves of Nepal (in million Rupees) from 2014 to 2021. Answer the following questions based on the graph :
Question:
What was the percentage increase (rounded to the nearest integer, if deemed necessary) in the foreign exchange reserves in 2020 over 2016 ?
Option: 1 None
Option: 2 None
Option: 3 None
Option: 4 None
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Marketing Director
A career as Marketing Director is also known as a marketing expert who is responsible for the overall marketing aspect of the company. He or she oversees plans and develops the company's budget. The marketing Director collaborates with the business team to plan and develop the marketing and branding strategies for the company's products or services.
4 Jobs Available
Business Development Executive
A Business Development Executive (BDE) is a professional responsible for identifying growth opportunities and fostering strategic partnerships to enhance a company's market position. Typically, a BDE conducts market research, analyses industry trends, and identifies potential clients or business prospects. He or she plays a crucial role in developing and implementing sales strategies to achieve revenue targets.
A BDE often collaborates with cross-functional teams, including marketing and product development, to align business objectives. Strong communication, negotiation, and relationship-building skills are essential for success in this role. BDE strives to expand the company's customer base, drive sales, and contribute to overall organisational growth in a dynamic and competitive business environment.
3 Jobs Available
Content Marketing Specialist
Content Marketing Specialists are also known as Content Specialists. They are responsible for crafting content, editing and developing it to meet the requirements of digital marketing campaigns. To ensure that the material created is consistent with the overall aims of a digital marketing campaign, content marketing specialists work closely with SEO and digital marketing professionals.
3 Jobs Available
Sales Manager
A sales manager is a revenue-generating source for a company. Any organisation or company which sells a commodity or service requires sales to generate revenue. A Sales manager is a professional responsible for supervising the sales team. An Individual as a sales manager works closely with salespeople, assigns sales territories, sets quotas, mentors the members of the sales, assigns sales training, and builds a sales plan.
The Sales Manager work also includes hiring and laying off sales personnel after evaluating his or her work performance. In bigger entities, sales quotas and plans are usually set at the executive level. He or she is responsible for overseeing the set target or quotas met by salespeople or upholding any policy. He or she guides his or her fellow salespeople and allows them to sell.
2 Jobs Available
Business Analyst
Individuals who opt for a career as a business analyst look at how a company operates. He or she conducts research and analyses data to improve his or her knowledge about the company. This is required so that an individual can suggest the company strategies for improving their operations and processes.
In a business analyst job role a lot of analysis is done, things are learned from past mistakes and the successful strategies are enhanced further. A business analyst goes through real-world data in order to provide the most feasible solutions to an organisation. Students can pursue Business Analytics to become Business Analysts.
2 Jobs Available
Marketing Manager
A marketing manager is a person who oversees a company or product marketing. He or she can be in charge of multiple programmes or goods or can be in charge of one product. He or she is enthusiastic, organised, and very diligent in meeting financial constraints. He or she works with other team members to produce advertising campaigns and decides if a new product or service is marketable.
A Marketing manager plans and executes marketing initiatives to create demand for goods and services and increase consumer awareness of them. A marketing manager prevents unauthorised statements and informs the public that the business is doing everything to investigate and fix the line of products. Students can pursue an MBA in Marketing Management courses to become marketing managers.
2 Jobs Available
SEO Analyst
An SEO Analyst is a web professional who is proficient in the implementation of SEO strategies to target more keywords to improve the reach of the content on search engines. He or she provides support to acquire the goals and success of the client’s campaigns.
2 Jobs Available
Digital Marketing Executive
Digital marketing is growing, diverse, and is covering a wide variety of career paths. Each job function aids in the development of effective digital marketing strategies and techniques. The aims and objectives of the individuals who opt for a career as a digital marketing executive are similar to those of a marketing professional: to build brand awareness, promote company services or products, and increase conversions. Individuals who opt for a career as Digital Marketing Executives, unlike traditional marketing companies, communicate effectively through suitable technology platforms.
2 Jobs Available
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