ICFAI Business School-IBSAT 2024
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The IBSAT exam for 2024 is scheduled for the last week of December. To do well and gain admission to one of the nine top ICFAI business schools, candidates need to prepare seriously. With not much time left, it’s important to use their study time wisely. In this article Careers360 has created five sample papers for the IBSAT exam, making it easier for candidates to prepare effectively and guide them in a better way.
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IBSAT 2024: Mock Test | Sample Papers | Preparation Tips
IBSAT 2024: Exam Pattern | Complete Guide
Abundant sample papers are available for different types of examination. But why is it necessary that the candidates must ensure that solving sample papers is also a part of their IBSAT preparation? Let us discuss this in detail.
Understanding Exam Pattern: IBSAT Sample papers help you familiarize yourself with the format, structure, and types of questions that appear in the IBSAT exam, reducing surprises on the actual test day.
Practicing Time Management: By completing IBSAT sample papers under timed settings, you may improve your time management abilities and make sure you finish all portions in the allotted time.
Identifying Weak Areas: Regular practice with IBSAT sample papers helps you identify your strengths and weaknesses, allowing you to focus your study efforts on areas that need improvement.
Improving Speed and Accuracy: Solving a variety of questions from sample papers of the IBSAT exam enhances your problem-solving speed and accuracy, which is crucial for scoring well in the exam.
Building Confidence: Consistent practice with IBSAT sample papers and familiarity with the exam structure increase your confidence, reducing your anxiety and increasing your sense of readiness for the test.
Effective Revision: IBSAT Sample papers provide a comprehensive review of the syllabus, helping you revise important topics and retain your knowledge.
The ICFAI Business School Aptitude Test commonly abbreviated as IBSAT is a management entrance exam attempted by more than 20,000 test-takers annually. This year, the IBSAT exam is scheduled to be conducted on 28th and 29th December 2024. The exam involves 140 questions asked from four different sections such as quantitative aptitude, verbal ability, reading comprehension data interpretation and data sufficiency. For each correct response, one mark is provided while no mark is deducted for incorrect answers providing an option for the candidates to make educated guesses without leaving their answers blank. The exam pattern of the IBSAT exam is given below:
IBSAT Exam Sections | No. of Questions |
Reading Comprehension | 30 |
Data Interpretation and Data Adequacy | 30 |
Quantitative Ability | 30 |
Verbal Ability | 50 |
Total | 140 |
A valid IBSAT score is considered for admission to the following colleges. However, the final admission will be based on the candidate’s performance in the IBSAT exam, Personal Interview and Group Discussion.
IBS Ahmedabad |
IBS Bengaluru |
IBS Dehradun |
IBS Gurgaon |
IBS Hyderabad |
IBS Jaipur |
IBS Kolkata |
IBS Mumbai |
IBS Pune |
While the IBSAT sample papers are really effective and helpful, the candidates should also ensure that they structure their preparation in a very effective manner. With limited preparation time ahead, the candidates can follow the five-month IBSAT exam preparation strategy to cover the complete IBSAT syllabus and start practising with the IBSAT sample papers.
Week | Focus Area | Topics |
1 | Verbal Ability | Usage of Parts of Speech; Tenses |
2 | Conditional Sentences; Fill in the Blanks | |
3 | Correction of Grammatical Errors | |
4 | Reading Comprehension Passages | |
5 | Quantitative Ability | |
6 | Bar Graph Interpretation; Trigonometry | |
7 | ||
8 | ||
9 | Data Adequacy and Data Interpretation | Cause and Effect; Linear Arrangement |
10 | ; Critical Reasoning : Statments conclusions arguments actions and inferences Matrix Arrangement | |
11 | Line Chart Interpretation; Pie Chart Interpretation | |
12 | Family Tree Analysis; Syllogism | |
13 | Reading Comprehension | Practice Reading Comprehension Passages |
14 | Detailed Analysis of Reading Comprehension Questions | |
15 | Practice Mock Reading Comprehension Tests | |
16 | Review and Analysis of Mock Tests | |
17 | Revision and Sample Paper attempts | Revision of Verbal Ability Topics; Practice Tests |
18 | Revision of Quantitative Ability Topics; Practice Tests | |
19 | Revision of Data Adequacy and Data Interpretation Topics; Practice Tests | |
20 | Full-Length Sample Papers Covering All Sections; Review and Analysis |
After a candidate is done with their IBSAT syllabus, the next stage of IBSAT preparation is practising and assessing themselves with IBSAT sample papers. Each IBSAT sample paper is represented to be a replica of the exam itself and hence can provide the candidates with much-needed IBSAT exam familiarity. This would help the candidates to reduce their IBSAT exam anxiety and build their confidence. But having access to IBSAT sample papers alone would not help, the candidates must have a clear understanding of how to judiciously use the IBSAT sample papers to ensure that they make the most out of their IBAT preparation resources.
Understand the Exam Pattern:
Before starting, familiarize yourself with the IBSAT exam pattern, including the number of sections, types of questions, and time allocation. This helps you approach the sample papers with the right mindset.
Simulate Exam Conditions: Attempt the IBSAT sample paper in a quiet place without any interruptions. Set a timer to match the actual exam duration, ensuring you practice under real exam conditions.
Start with a Diagnostic Test: Use the first sample paper of IBSAT as a diagnostic test to understand your current level of preparation. This will help identify your strengths and weaknesses.
Analyze Your Performance: After completing the IBSAT sample paper, thoroughly analyze your answers. Identify the questions you got wrong or found difficult and understand the reasons behind your mistakes.
Focus on Weak Areas: Use the insights from your analysis to focus on your weak areas. Spend extra time revisiting concepts and practising similar questions to improve your understanding and skills.
Track Your Progress: Regularly attempt IBSAT sample papers to track your progress. Compare your scores and the time taken for each paper to measure improvement in speed and accuracy.
Revise Key Concepts: Use sample IBSAT papers to revise important topics. As you solve questions, review the related concepts to strengthen your knowledge.
Develop Test-Taking Strategies: Practice different strategies for tackling each section, such as the order of attempting sections, time allocation, and question selection. Find the approach that works best for you.
Stay Consistent: Make solving sample papers a regular part of your study routine. Consistency helps build familiarity with the exam pattern and boosts confidence.
Sample papers are the go-to exam preparation materials for any candidate. As far as the IBSAT exam is concerned constantly practising IBSAT exam sample papers and assessment of preparation are essential for the comprehensive IBSAT preparation of the candidates. To help the candidates in this regard, Careers360 has designed not just 1 or 2 but a collection of 5 comprehensive IBSAT sample papers. This can not only ensure a well-rounded preparation of the candidates but also help the candidates to be exam-ready.
TITLE | DOWNLOAD LINKS |
IBSAT SAMPLE PAPERS |
Now let us discuss a few IBSAT exam sample questions and their answers to attain a brief understanding of the IBSAT exam difficulty and the IBSAT exam expected questions.
Directions: In the following questions, each word is followed by five options. Choose the option which is the closest synonym of the given words. While choosing your answer, keep in mind the finer distinctions in the meaning and usage of certain words.
1. INSIDIOUS
(a) Tasteless
(b) Treacherous
(c) Secure
(d) Formal
(e) Vigilant
Correct Answer: (b) Treacherous.
The word "insidious" means proceeding in a gradual, subtle way but with harmful effects. It often implies being treacherous or deceitful.
Let's analyze the options:
(a) Tasteless: This word means lacking flavor or lacking good taste, which does not relate to deceit or harm.
(b) Treacherous: This word means guilty of or involving betrayal or deception, which aligns perfectly with the harmful and deceitful nature of "insidious."
(c) Secure: This word means free from danger or threat, which is the opposite of insidious.
(d) Formal: This word means following established form, custom, or rule, which does not imply deceit or harm.
(e) Vigilant: This word means keeping careful watch for possible danger or difficulties, which is not related to deceit.
Thus, the closest synonym to "insidious" is "treacherous," making the correct answer (b) Treacherous.
Directions: In the following questions, each word is followed by five options. Choose the option which is the closest antonym of the given words. While choosing your answer, keep in mind the finer distinctions in the meaning and usage of certain words
2. HEED
(a) Hope
(b) Ignore
(c) Overtake
(d) Nurture
(e) Pacify
Correct Answer: (b) Ignore
The word "heed" means to pay attention to, take notice of, or consider carefully. The correct antonym should represent the opposite action of paying attention.
Let's analyze the options:
(a) Hope: This word means to desire something to happen or be the case, which is unrelated to paying attention.
(b) Ignore: This word means to refuse to take notice of or to disregard, which is the direct opposite of heeding.
(c) Overtake: This word means to catch up with and pass while traveling in the same direction, which does not relate to paying attention.
(d) Nurture: This word means to care for and encourage the growth or development of, which is not the opposite of paying attention.
(e) Pacify: This word means to quell the anger, agitation, or excitement of, which is not related to paying attention.
Thus, the closest antonym to "heed" is "ignore," making the correct answer (b) Ignore.
Directions: In the following questions, the first two words are related in a particular manner. You have to choose a word from the options so that a new pair of words is formed where the relation is the same as that of the first pair of words. You are required to consider the secondary meaning of certain words while choosing an answer.
3. Unbiased : Judge :: Articulate :
(a) Orator
(b) Soldier
(c) Celebrity
(d) Clown
(e) Novice
Correct Answer: (a) Orator
The relationship between "Unbiased" and "Judge" is that an unbiased judge is one who is expected to make fair and impartial decisions. Similarly, we need to find a word that represents a person who is characterized by being articulate, which means having the ability to speak clearly and effectively.
Let's analyze the options:
(a) Orator: An orator is a person who is skilled at public speaking and is typically very articulate.
(b) Soldier: A soldier is not specifically known for being articulate; this word does not fit the analogy.
(c) Celebrity: A celebrity is a famous person but not necessarily known for being articulate.
(d) Clown: A clown is typically associated with entertainment and humor, not specifically with articulate speech.
(e) Novice: A novice is a beginner or someone who is new to a field and not related to being articulate.
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Directions: Fill in the blanks with the words that best fit the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
4. Research should be done on rainwater ________ and treatment of wastewater so that it might be recycled and made ________.
(a) harvesting … potable
(b) preserving … available
(c) controlling … possible
(d) maintaining … edible
(e) collecting … accessible
Correct Answer: (a) harvesting … potable
"Research should be done on rainwater ________ and treatment of wastewater so that it might be recycled and made ________."
Let's break it down:
The first blank needs a term related to the collection or use of rainwater. "Harvesting" fits best because it refers to the process of collecting and storing rainwater.
The second blank needs a term that describes making the recycled water suitable for use. "Potable" fits well because it means safe to drink or suitable for consumption.
Thus, the complete sentence is: "Research should be done on rainwater harvesting and treatment of wastewater so that it might be recycled and made potable."
Therefore, the correct answer is (a) harvesting … potable.
Directions: In each of the following questions, a part of the given sentence has been underlined as this part may have an error. The first option is the same as the underlined part in the given sentence. Choose this option if you think that the underlined part has no error. Otherwise, choose the option that rectifies the error in the underlined part of the given sentence.
5. More and more people are becoming dependent on its nuclear families to provide them whatever support they require.
(a) are becoming dependent on its
(b) are becoming dependent on their
(c) are become dependent on their
(d) have been becoming dependent on their
(e) are become dependent on its
Correct Answer: (b) are becoming dependent on their.
Original Sentence: "More and more people are becoming dependent on its nuclear families to provide them whatever support they require."
(a) are becoming dependent on its — This option is incorrect because "its" should be replaced with "their" to correctly refer to the families.
(b) are becoming dependent on their — This option is correct. "Their" correctly refers to the nuclear families and is grammatically consistent with the plural subject "people."
(c) are become dependent on their — This option is incorrect because "are become" is grammatically incorrect; it should be "are becoming."
(d) have been becoming dependent on their — This option is incorrect because the present continuous tense "are becoming" is more appropriate than the present perfect continuous tense "have been becoming" for this context.
(e) are become dependent on its — This option is incorrect because "are become" is grammatically incorrect, and "its" should be "their."
The correct sentence should be: "More and more people are becoming dependent on their nuclear families to provide them whatever support they require."
Therefore, the correct answer is (b) are becoming dependent on their.
Directions: In the following questions, different parts of a sentence/passage have been jumbled. Choose the option that represents the best sequence to make the sentence/passage coherent and meaningful. Ignore punctuation marks.
6. P: They should also update their competence to guide their subordinates
Q: New processes, machines, instruments, gauges, systems and gadgets
R: This would be possible only if they keep in regular touch with
S: Managers must lead by example; they should not be averse to giving a hand in manual work, if required
(a) PSRQ
(b) RPQS
(c) SPRQ
(d) SRPQ
(e) PRSQ
Correct Answer: (C) SPRQ
Here’s the logical flow:
S: "Managers must lead by example; they should not be averse to giving a hand in manual work, if required" — This introduces the need for managers to lead by example and be willing to participate in manual work.
P: "They should also update their competence to guide their subordinates" — This suggests that managers need to continually improve their skills to effectively lead their subordinates.
R: "This would be possible only if they keep in regular touch with" — This explains how updating competence can be achieved by staying in touch with relevant updates.
Q: "New processes, machines, instruments, gauges, systems and gadgets" — This specifies what managers need to stay updated with.
So the aligned sequence is SPRQ.
.Directions: Choose a suitable one-word substitute for the given phrase from the options under each question
7. The belief that arranging the home or office in a particular way will bring good or bad luck.
(a) Eugenics
(b) Antiquary
(c) Geomancy
(d) Soothsaying
(e) Astrology
The suitable one-word substitute for "The belief that arranging the home or office in a particular way will bring good or bad luck" is:
Correct Answer: (c) Geomancy
Here’s why:
(a) Eugenics — Refers to the study of or belief in improving the genetic quality of the human population.
(b) Antiquary — Refers to someone who studies or collects antiques or ancient artifacts.
(c) Geomancy — Refers to a method of divination that involves interpreting patterns or arrangements on the ground or in the environment, often related to the belief that such arrangements can influence luck or fortune.
(d) Soothsaying — Refers to the practice of predicting the future, often through various forms of divination, but not specifically about arranging spaces.
(e) Astrology — Refers to the study of the positions and movements of celestial bodies and their supposed influence on human affairs, not specifically about arranging physical spaces.
Directions: Each passage is followed by questions based on its content. Answer the questions on the basis of what is directly stated in each of the passages or can be inferred from it.
There are millions of children in India, who cannot, for a variety of reasons, be protected by their parents and adult family. They maybe dead, or alcoholic, or violent and abusive, or in jail, or lost, or have abandoned their child. The parents may also be themselves destitute, homeless, gravely ill or disabled, and therefore unable to care for their children without support. The child, who has no home or settled place or abode and any ostensible means of subsistence maybe at risk in other ways as well: due to riots, natural disasters, war and militant conflict; disabilities and incurable terminal ailments, with no one who can support or look after the child; when a child is grossly abused or tortured; is inducted into drug abuse or trafficking; child marriage and child labor. In all such situations, it is the State, which is both morally and legally responsible to protect, nurture and raise each child. However, at present, the State in India invests miniscule resources in child protection. India today is a youthful nation: 19 percent of the children in the world live within its boundaries, and more than one-third of the population is below 18 years. Accounting for the largest number of children in work, and the second largest number of children affected by HIV, India arguably has the highest number of children facing exploitation and neglect in the world. But the investment on child protection was a shocking 0.034 per cent of the budget. Traditionally, public authorities have tried to accomplish their duty of protecting children who are at risk mainly by locking away large numbers of these children in State-run, closed institutions for many years until the child grows to adulthood, and soon after the child comes of age by abruptly discharging the child without any further support into the larger society. Private and religious charities also sometimes run orphanages for such children, but they are usually run on similar custodial principles of raising the child in confined and overly disciplined environments. For children who conflict with the law, there are statutory ‘special homes’ to which they are usually confined in conditions similar to jails. For many years, these children also shared adult jails, and many illegally continue to do so. It is both absurd and heartless for children to be locked up only because they have no one to protect them. It is argued that this is done for the sake of the child: if the child was free in the community, the State would be unable to protect the child from abuse, and therefore she is locked up for her own good. This is quite illogical. The State must find ways to protect the child who is in need of care in ways that respect the child’s right to a happy and free childhood, while at the same time ensuring her protection, and her rights to food, education, health care, recreation, love and security.
1. According to the passage, ‘special homes’ are statutorily run for
(a) Children who are gravely ill or disabled
(b) Orphans and children affected by natural disasters and riots
(c) Children with incurable terminal ailments
(d) Destitute children and children who are addicted to drugs
(e) Juvenile delinquents
Correct Answer: (e) Juvenile delinquents
Explanation: The passage states that "For children who conflict with the law, there are statutory ‘special homes’" which are intended for juvenile delinquents.
2. It is evident from the passage that all these institutions are devoid of
(a) Requisite facilities
(b) Minimum infrastructure
(c) Safety arrangements
(d) Love and affection
(e) Community interaction
Correct Answer: (d) Love and affection
Explanation: The passage criticizes the current system for lacking emotional care, noting that children are often placed in institutions devoid of "love and affection."
3. It becomes an obligation for the State to take moral and legal responsibility in the case of children
(a) Who are badly abused
(b) Whose parents are seriously ill
(c) Who are orphaned or abandoned
(d) Whose parents are destitute and homeless
(e) All the above
Correct Answer: (e) All the above
Explanation: The passage mentions various situations where the State should take moral and legal responsibility for children, including those who are abused, orphaned, abandoned, or have parents who are destitute or homeless.
4. Pick out the statement, which is true.
(a) India accounts for the largest number of children engaged in work
(b) The author feels that it is quite reasonable to keep the neglected children in jails to ensure their safety
(c) Orphanages run by private charities do not enforce strict discipline on the inmates
(d) A huge amount in the Indian budget is reserved for child protection
(e) Compared to the rest of the countries in the world, India has the least number of children, who are affected by HIV
Correct Answer: (a) India accounts for the largest number of children engaged in work
Explanation: The passage mentions India has the highest number of children facing exploitation and neglect, including a large number engaged in work.
5. Pick out the word which is a close synonym of ‘ostensible’ as used in the passage.
(a) Apprehensive
(b) Rigid
(c) Contemptible
(d) Apparent
(e) Unreal
Correct Answer: d) Apparent
Explanation: "Ostensible" means something that appears to be true or real but may not actually be. "Apparent" is a close synonym.
6. It may be inferred from the passage that it is the right of every child to have a/an
(a) Luxurious life
(b) Special identity in the society
(c) Individual status
(d) Happy and free childhood
(e) Free access to higher education
Correct Answer: (d) Happy and free childhood
Explanation: The passage highlights the right of every child to a "happy and free childhood" alongside other basic rights.
7. What have been the State authorities doing all these years?
(a) They have been strictly supervising the State-run homes and similar charitable organizations which gives shelter to homeless children
(b) They have been keeping huge numbers of neglected children in State-run homes and would suddenly send them out into the society as soon as they become adults
(c) They have been trying to bring reformation in the minds of children who display socially unacceptable behaviour
(d) They have been running schools with the prime motto of sending out young offenders as changed persons
(e) They have been providing state-of-the-art facilities in order to attract more such children to these homes
Correct Answer: b) They have been keeping huge numbers of neglected children in State-run homes and would suddenly send them out into the society as soon as they become adults
Explanation: The passage describes how State authorities have traditionally handled neglected children by placing them in institutions and then discharging them abruptly when they reach adulthood.
1. Anuradha invests her money in a firm where the principal amount becomes 3 times in 10 years. What is the yearly rate of simple interest offered by the firm?
25%
20%
22%
18%
Correct Answer: C.22%
Let P be the principal and R be the rate of interest. Total amount = 3P. Simple interest, SI = 3P - P = 2P. Term, n = 10 years.
Now, SI = (PnR) / 100
⇒ 2P = (P × 10 × R) / 100
So, R = 20%
Hence, the correct answer is 20%.
2. Determine the LCM of two numbers if their HCF is 9 and their ratio is 14 : 19.
2394
3990
1596
3192
Correct Answer: A. 2394
Given, HCF = 9
1st number = 14 × 9 = 126
Also, 2nd number = 19 × 9 = 171
⇒ LCM of 126 and 171 = 9 × 14 × 19 = 2394
Hence, the correct answer is 2394.
3. The largest 5-digit number that is exactly divisible by 88 is:
99968
99689
68999
66698
Correct Answer: A. 99968
Largest 5-digit number = 99999
Now, 99999 = 88 × 1136 + 31
⇒ 99999 – 31 = 88 × 1136
⇒ 99968 = 88 × 1136
So, 99968 is the largest 5-digit number divisible by 88.
Hence, the correct answer is 99968.
4. Number p is 15% more than 150. If k is 15% less than p, then k is equal to:
136.324
166.625
116.328
146.625
Correct Answer: D.146.625
Given that p is 15% more than 150, we can calculate ppp as follows: p = 150 + (15/100 × 150) = 172.5
Now, kkk is 15% less than ppp k = p - (15/100 × p) = 172.5 - (15/100 × 172.5) = 146.625
Hence, the correct answer is 146.625.
5. A horse was sold for Rs. 60,000 at a profit of 20%. For what price should he have sold to gain a 30% profit?
Rs. 64,000
Rs. 65,000
Rs. 50,000
Rs. 55,000
Correct Answer: B. Rs. 65,000
Selling price of the horse at a profit of 20% = Rs. 60,000
Therefore, the cost price of the horse = 100 / (100 + 20) × 60,000 = 50,000
To get a profit of 30%, the new selling price of the horse = (100 + 30) / 100 × 50,000 = 65,000
Hence, the correct answer is Rs. 65,000.
6. If 450 men can finish the construction of an apartment in 20 days, then how many men are needed to complete the same work in 30 days?
150
300
400
250
Correct Answer:
We know, M1 × D1 = M2 × D2, where M1 and M2 are men and D1 and D2 are days.
450 men can finish the construction of an apartment in 20 days.
Here, M1 = 450, D1 = 20, and D2 = 30.
So, 450 × 20 = M2 × 30
Therefore, M2 = 300
Hence, the correct answer is 300.
1. On which day in May is Aryan's birthday?
Statements:
A. Aryan was born exactly 20 years after his father was born.
B. His father will be 45 years 8 months and 10 days on September 25 this year.
Options:
A. Statement A alone is sufficient while B alone is not sufficient.
B. Statement B alone is sufficient while A alone is not sufficient.
C. Both A and B are sufficient.
D. Either A or B is sufficient.
Correct Answer: Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Clearly, the birthday of Aryan's father can be found out from Statement B, and then Aryan's birthday can be determined using the fact given in Statement A. Therefore, both statements together are sufficient to determine the day in May on which Aryan's birthday falls.
2. What is the code for 'go' in the code language?
Statements:
A. In the code language, 'ja ka la' means 'go to market'.
B. In the same code language, 'ka jo ti' means 'he will go tomorrow'.
Options:
A. Statement A alone is sufficient while B alone is not sufficient.
B. Statement B alone is sufficient while A alone is not sufficient.
C. Both A and B are sufficient.
D. Neither A nor B is sufficient.
Correct Answer: Option C
Explanation:
In both statements A and B, the common word is 'go', and the common code word is 'ka'. So, 'ka' is the code for 'go'. Therefore, both statements together are sufficient to determine the code for 'go' in the given code language.
3. Among G, H, I, J, K, and L, who is the heaviest?
Statements:
A. G and J are heavier than H, K, and L, but none of them is the heaviest.
B. G is heavier than J but lighter than I.
Options:
A. Statement A alone is sufficient while B alone is not sufficient.
B. Statement B alone is sufficient while A alone is not sufficient.
C. Either A or B is sufficient.
D. Neither A nor B is sufficient.
Correct Answer: Option A
Explanation:
From Statement A, we conclude that since none of G and J is the heaviest and each one of H, K, and L is lighter than both G and J, so I is the heaviest. Therefore, Statement A alone is sufficient to determine who is the heaviest.
4. How many guests attended the party yesterday?
Statements:
A. Each invitation allows the invitee to bring up to five guests.
B. In total, 150 invitations were sent out for the party.
Options:
A. Statement A alone is sufficient while B alone is not sufficient.
B. Statement B alone is sufficient while A alone is not sufficient.
C. Either A or B is sufficient.
D. Neither A nor B is sufficient.
Correct Answer: Option D
Explanation:
From Statement A, we know that each invitation allows the invitee to bring up to five guests.
From Statement B, we know that 150 invitations were sent out.
However, we cannot determine the exact number of guests who attended the party since it depends on how many guests each invitee brings. Therefore, neither statement alone is sufficient to determine the number of guests.
5. Neha's and Arjun's incomes are in the ratio of 5 : 2 respectively. What is Neha's income?
Statements:
A. Arjun's income is 60% that of Neha's income.
B. Arjun's income is Rs 4800.
Options:
A. Statement A alone is sufficient while B alone is not sufficient.
B. Statement B alone is sufficient while A alone is not sufficient.
C. Either A or B is sufficient.
D. Neither A nor B is sufficient.
Correct Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Statement A is simply an interpretation of the information provided in the question.
However, Neha's income can be determined from Statement B as follows: Let Neha's and Arjun's incomes be 5y and 2y respectively. Then, 2y = 4800 or y = 2400. Therefore, Neha's income = 5y = Rs. 12000. Hence only B is required.
Directions: The following bar diagram gives information on exporter of gemstones in the world(in billions of dollars) . Based on this, answer the questions from 6-7.
6. Which country ranks second in gemstone exports globally?
A) Australia
B) Thailand
C) South Africa
D) Colombia
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Thailand secures the second position in gemstone exports globally, with a substantial average export value of $30 billion, highlighting its significance in the gemstone trade.
7. What is the average export value of gemstones for Thailand, the second-largest exporter?
A) $50 billion
B) $30 billion
C) $20 billion
D) $15 billion
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Thailand boasts an average export value of $30 billion, establishing itself as the second-largest exporter of gemstones, reflecting the country's notable role in the international gemstone market.
Seeking help from the reputed IBSAT preparation materials can be of great help to the students. Careers360 has narrowed down a collection of best management exam practice books for enhancing the preparation of the candidates. The list is attached below:
Book Title | Authors |
How to Prepare for Quantitative Aptitude for the CAT | Arun Sharma |
Quantitative Aptitude for CAT | Nishit Sinha |
Quantitative Aptitude Quantum CAT | Sarvesh Verma |
Logical Reasoning and Data Interpretation for the CAT | Nishit K. Sinha |
A Modern Approach to Logical Reasoning | R.S. Aggarwal |
Quantitative Aptitude for Competitive Examinations | Abhijit Guha |
Data Interpretation & Data Sufficiency | Ananta Ashish |
Candidates can also download and study different ebooks created by Careers360 for B-school exam preparation. These ebooks can help candidates improve their understanding and get the most out of their IBSAT preparation.
eBook Title | Download Links |
3000+ Most Important Words - Vocabulary Builder | |
500+ Most Important Idioms and Phrases | |
300+ Most Important Phrasal Verbs | |
Permutation & Combination - Video Lectures and Practice Questions | |
Mastering DILR Questions with Expert Solutions |
Yes, you can take IBSAT from home as it is a home-based proctored exam. This means you can complete it online from your own computer.
Getting into IBS Hyderabad is of moderate difficulty. It requires a good IBSAT score or other accepted exam scores, along with strong performances in both Group Discussions and Personal Interviews (GD & PI).
IBSAT is conducted once a year.
No, IBSAT does not have sectional cutoffs. The overall score is considered for admission.
More than 25,000 students typically apply for IBSAT each year. The exact number can vary annually.
IBSAT 2024 exam will be held on December 28 and 29
Developing techniques to finish all portions within the allotted time is facilitated by practicing under timed situations
The number of questions on the IBSAT exam There are 140 questions in the four categories of the IBSAT exam: reading comprehension, data interpretation, verbal ability, and numerical aptitude.
No, responses that are erroneous on the IBSAT do not result in a negative score.
Try sample papers frequently, then evaluate your progress by comparing your time and score.
Hello student
Here are some preferred books for IBSAT exam preparation:
*Quantitative Aptitude:*
1. "Quantitative Aptitude for Competitive Examinations" by R.S. Aggarwal
2. "Quantum CAT" by Sarvesh K. Verma
*Data Interpretation and Logical Reasoning:*
1. "Data Interpretation and Logical Reasoning" by Arun Sharma
2. "Logical Reasoning and Data Interpretation" by K. K. Kundu
*Verbal Ability:*
1. "Verbal Ability and Reading Comprehension" by Ajay Singh
2. "Verbal Ability" by R.S. Aggarwal
*General Knowledge and Current Affairs:*
1. "General Knowledge" by Manohar Pandey
2. "Current Affairs" by Arihant Publications
*IBSAT Specific Books:*
1. "IBSAT Guide" by Bulls Eye
2. "IBSAT Prep Guide" by Career Launcher
*Online Resources:*
1. IBSAT official website ((link unavailable))
2. Online mock tests and practice papers
Remember to practice regularly, take mock tests, and focus on your weaknesses to improve your performance. Good luck with your IBSAT preparation!
Hi,
IBS Aptitude Test is a test to find out your aptitude in the area of IBS. It helps you understand how well you handle stress and anxiety, how much you can cope with pain and discomfort, what are your strengths and weaknesses. The test is designed for people who have been diagnosed with Irritable Bowel Syndrome (IBS).
How does it work?
The test consists of two parts: an online questionnaire followed by a paper-based assessment. You will be asked to answer questions about yourself that may reveal information about your symptoms, lifestyle habits or personality traits which could affect the way you feel.
Thank you!
Hello,
IBSAT 2021 is scheduled on December 25, 2021 and December 26, 2021. The examination will be conducted in online mode. You do not have to book the slot to attend IBSAT 2021 examination. The examination center, date and time will be allotted to you and it will be given on the admit card. You need to attend the examination as per the details given on the admit card. The admit card will be soon released on the official website. You can download the admit card on the official website: ibsindia.org (https://general.ibsindia.org/mba-pgpm/index.asp?utm_source=google&utm_medium=IBSAT-Sitelink&utm_campaign=IBSAT2021Search&utm_source=Google&utm_medium=CPC&gclid=CjwKCAiAh_GNBhAHEiwAjOh3ZLO-1PvdD8J0Niclcqx4SSJRs4WvB-cB6seYvqriDJT6YlI8ntRIwxoCWQEQAvD_BwE#about)
IBSAT is a home proctored exam and it will held in the last week of December. You should check your admit card and email that whether you have received login credentials or not. In order to give this exam you must have username and password. At the test day they will be sending you the test link and you will have to login with your username and password. If you do not have login credentials then contact their team as soon as possible but only after checking your mail and admit card properly. They will thoroughly guide you everything.
Hello Aspirant.
Hope you are doing well.
NMAT = The National Medical Admission Test (NMAT) in Philippines is a national level examination pre-requisite by the applicant for entry to any medical school in the Philippines.
MAT = Management Aptitude Test, commonly known as MAT exam is conducted by the All India Management Association. Through this test, thousands of applicants bag admission to the top-tier B-schools of the country. It takes place 4 times a year.
IIFT = IIFT is a national-level management entrance exam conducted annually by National Testing Agency (NTA), for admission to its MBA (https://www.bing.com/search?q=MBA&filters=sid%3a75c75897-cd4a-8192-85b0-c7f302150a81&form=ENTLNK) (IB) program.
SNAP = SNAP entrance exam, commonly known as Symbiosis National Aptitude Test is an MBA level entrance exam that is attempted by almost 2 lakh students all over India to secure admission in the Symbiosis Business Schools. SNAP Test is conducted by Symbiosis International University (SIU). There are a total of 16 Symbiosis Institutes affiliated with SIU.
CMAT = The CMAT exam is one of the most popular MBA entrance exams. Common Management Admission Test (CMAT) is a national level entrance test conducted by National Testing Agency (NTA). Till 2018, it was conducted by All India Council for Technical Education (AICTE) as per the directions of Ministry of Human Resource Development (MHRD), Government of India.
IBSAT = The full form for IBSAT is ICFAI Business School Aptitude Test (IBSAT). It is one of the most popular and prominent university level entrance examinations for pursuing MBA, PGPM & PhD (part-time/full-time) programs in India. IBSAT 2021 is an entrance test which is conducted by ICFAI Foundation For Higher Education.
XAT = Xavier Aptitude Test (XAT) is a national-level MBA entrance test conducted by Xavier Labor Relation Institute (XLRI) Jamshedpur on the behalf of Xavier Association of Management Institutes (XAMI).
GOOD LUCK, STAY MOTIVATED AND HOPE THIS HELPS.
Thankyou.
A career as Marketing Director is also known as a marketing expert who is responsible for the overall marketing aspect of the company. He or she oversees plans and develops the company's budget. The marketing Director collaborates with the business team to plan and develop the marketing and branding strategies for the company's products or services.
A Business Development Executive (BDE) is a professional responsible for identifying growth opportunities and fostering strategic partnerships to enhance a company's market position. Typically, a BDE conducts market research, analyses industry trends, and identifies potential clients or business prospects. He or she plays a crucial role in developing and implementing sales strategies to achieve revenue targets.
A BDE often collaborates with cross-functional teams, including marketing and product development, to align business objectives. Strong communication, negotiation, and relationship-building skills are essential for success in this role. BDE strives to expand the company's customer base, drive sales, and contribute to overall organisational growth in a dynamic and competitive business environment.
Content Marketing Specialists are also known as Content Specialists. They are responsible for crafting content, editing and developing it to meet the requirements of digital marketing campaigns. To ensure that the material created is consistent with the overall aims of a digital marketing campaign, content marketing specialists work closely with SEO and digital marketing professionals.
A sales manager is a revenue-generating source for a company. Any organisation or company which sells a commodity or service requires sales to generate revenue. A Sales manager is a professional responsible for supervising the sales team. An Individual as a sales manager works closely with salespeople, assigns sales territories, sets quotas, mentors the members of the sales, assigns sales training, and builds a sales plan.
The Sales Manager work also includes hiring and laying off sales personnel after evaluating his or her work performance. In bigger entities, sales quotas and plans are usually set at the executive level. He or she is responsible for overseeing the set target or quotas met by salespeople or upholding any policy. He or she guides his or her fellow salespeople and allows them to sell.
Individuals who opt for a career as a business analyst look at how a company operates. He or she conducts research and analyses data to improve his or her knowledge about the company. This is required so that an individual can suggest the company strategies for improving their operations and processes.
In a business analyst job role a lot of analysis is done, things are learned from past mistakes and the successful strategies are enhanced further. A business analyst goes through real-world data in order to provide the most feasible solutions to an organisation. Students can pursue Business Analytics to become Business Analysts.
A marketing manager is a person who oversees a company or product marketing. He or she can be in charge of multiple programmes or goods or can be in charge of one product. He or she is enthusiastic, organised, and very diligent in meeting financial constraints. He or she works with other team members to produce advertising campaigns and decides if a new product or service is marketable.
A Marketing manager plans and executes marketing initiatives to create demand for goods and services and increase consumer awareness of them. A marketing manager prevents unauthorised statements and informs the public that the business is doing everything to investigate and fix the line of products. Students can pursue an MBA in Marketing Management courses to become marketing managers.
An SEO Analyst is a web professional who is proficient in the implementation of SEO strategies to target more keywords to improve the reach of the content on search engines. He or she provides support to acquire the goals and success of the client’s campaigns.
Digital marketing is growing, diverse, and is covering a wide variety of career paths. Each job function aids in the development of effective digital marketing strategies and techniques. The aims and objectives of the individuals who opt for a career as a digital marketing executive are similar to those of a marketing professional: to build brand awareness, promote company services or products, and increase conversions. Individuals who opt for a career as Digital Marketing Executives, unlike traditional marketing companies, communicate effectively through suitable technology platforms.
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