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The UPESMET exam or the University of Petroleum and Energy Studies Management Entrance Test is a nationwide management entrance examination held by the UPES University for admission to its Master of Business Administration (MBA) degree program. Candidates who have registered for the UPESMET exam and are awaiting their UPESMET exam date 2024 can read this article to enhance their UPESMET preparation. The UPESMET is an online Computer-Based Test (CBT) for 2 hours.
Latest: UPESMAT Sample Papers with Solutions
Don't Miss: UPESMET Preparation Tips PDF (Section-wise)
Also See: UPESMET: Mock Test PDF
Before the candidates set sail into their UPESMET examination, the candidates should completely understand the UPESMET exam format and shape their preparation accordingly. Given below is the overview of the UPESMET examination. The UPESMET results will be made available later.
Section | Details |
Eligibility Criteria | - Minimum 50% marks in Class X, XII, and Graduation.- Graduation from a recognized University. |
Selection Criteria | - UPESMET / National Level Exams followed by Personal Interview. |
Process Flow | - Mode of Examination: Online test - Test duration: 2 hours - Interviews are conducted after the exam and slot booking |
Be it any exams, mock tests are mandatory for candidates. Soon after a candidate is done with their UPESMET exam syllabus, they must begin taking UPESMET mock tests. Now let us discuss a few important advantages of attempting UPESMET mock tests.
Understanding the Exam Pattern: Mock exams mirror the actual examination and is the closest to real exam preparation before the actual exam. Hence, mock tests are designed after referring to the official exam syllabus of any exam. As a result, UPES mock tests provide a great opportunity for the candidates to understand the exam pattern and prepare accordingly.
Honing the Time Management skills: One of the major concerns of the management entrance tests is the length of the examination and the difficulty faced by the candidates to manage their time. This can only be tackled with efficient UPES exam practice.
Identifying Strengths and Weaknesses: Different candidates would have their own set of strengths and weaknesses. This can only be found out through competition of mock tests.
Improving Accuracy and Speed: The only key to success is through constant efforts and practice. With each mock test, the candidates enhance their accuracy and speed of completing each problem. Overtime, this would help them to master various topics.
Developing Exam Strategies: Through mock tests, candidates can develop and refine their test-taking strategies. This includes deciding the order of attempting sections, the approach to answering difficult questions, and strategies for maximizing scores.
Building confidence: Finally, with each UPESMET mock test, the candidates would get more comfortable with the exam pattern and ultimately leading to them getting more confident with the exam and this can bring positive results in their UPESMET scores.
Before setting sail towards the UPES examination, it is important to completely understand the UPESMET exam pattern and structure the preparation accordingly. The official UPESMET examination pattern is given below:
General English: Reading Comprehension, Verbal Reasoning, Verbal Ability | 35 |
Quantitative: Data Interpretation and Data Sufficiency | 35 |
General Awareness: General Knowledge, Current Affairs, Business Scenario | 35 |
Analytical and Logical Reasoning | 35 |
Total No. of Questions | 140 |
In the UPESMET examination, the candidates are asked questions on the various topics of General English, Quantitative Aptitude, General Awareness and Analytical and Logical Reasoning. The Data interpretation (graph), RC, Analyzing Statements, CA (business), CA, Fill in the blanks, Jumbled words and Antonyms, Odd one out, Para Jumbles, Prepositions, Sitting Arrangement, Statement and conclusions, Business, Data sufficiency, Decision Making, Geography, Political Science, Profit and loss, Static GK, Static GK, Summarizing, Analytical Reasoning, Argument Evaluation, Classification, and so on.
It is always advisable for the candidates to understand the chapter-wise weightage to structure their UPESMET preparation likewise. This weightage is given after the analysis of the official sample paper released by the UPES university for the UPESMET exam.
Chapter Name | Weightage of each Chapter |
Data interpretation(graph) | 8.13% |
RC | 7.50% |
Analyzing Statements | 5.00% |
CA | 3.75% |
Fill in the blanks | 3.75% |
Jumpled words and Antonyms | 3.13% |
Odd one out | 3.13% |
Para Jumbles | 3.13% |
Prepositions | 3.13% |
Sitting Arrangement | 3.13% |
Statement and conclusions | 3.13% |
Business | 2.50% |
Data sufficiency | 2.50% |
Decision Making | 2.50% |
Geography | 2.50% |
Political Science | 2.50% |
Profit and loss | 2.50% |
Static GK | 2.50% |
Summarizing | 2.50% |
Analytical Reasoning | 1.88% |
Argument Evaluation | 1.88% |
Classification | 1.88% |
Comparison | 1.88% |
Ordering and Ranking | 1.88% |
Ratio | 1.88% |
Combinatorics | 1.25% |
Direction | 1.25% |
Percentage | 1.25% |
Tagline | 1.25% |
Time and work | 1.25% |
Arithmetic Progression | 0.63% |
Average | 0.63% |
Boat and Stream | 0.63% |
Current Affairs | 0.63% |
Distance and direction | 0.63% |
Family-Based Puzzles | 0.63% |
Probability | 0.63% |
Simple interest | 0.63% |
Time and distance | 0.63% |
Trigonometry | 0.63% |
UPESMET requires extensive preparation and when it comes to preparation, there is no better preparation methodology than UPESMET mock tests. The link to the complete UPESMET mock test designed by Careers360 is given below:
ARTICLE | STUDY LINK |
UPESMET mock test |
Let us discuss a few UPESMET mock questions.
Directions (Questions 1-3): Study the passages below and answer the questions that follow each passage.
Competitive analysis is a critical component of strategic planning for businesses. It involves assessing the strengths and weaknesses of current and potential competitors in the market. This analysis helps companies identify opportunities for differentiation, understand market trends, and anticipate competitor actions. Key factors influencing competitive analysis include market share, product quality, customer service, pricing strategies, and marketing effectiveness. By regularly evaluating competitors, businesses can adjust their strategies to maintain a competitive edge.
1. What are the primary factors that influence the outcome of a competitive analysis?
A. The pricing strategies of competitors
B. The customer service quality provided
C. The technological advancements in the industry
A. A & B
B. B & C
C. A & C
D. A, B & C
2. Which of the following statements are true according to the passage?
A. Understanding competitor weaknesses can lead to strategic advantages for a business.
B. Regularly analyzing competitors is unnecessary in a stable market.
C. Market trends can significantly impact a company's competitive position.
A. A only
B. C only
C. A & C
D. A, B & C
3. Which of the following statements is/are not true?
A. A comprehensive competitive analysis can prevent businesses from making costly mistakes.
B. Competitors do not affect a company’s performance if it has a loyal customer base.
C. Ignoring competitive analysis can lead to missed opportunities for innovation.
A. A only
B. B only
C. A & C
D. B & C
4. Rearrange the jumbled alphabets in the following four options and find the odd word among them.
A. PAERP
B. RIALSETNG
C. KOOB
D. ZMIAGANE
5. Directions: Rearrange the following jumbled word and select the word which is opposite in meaning to the rearranged word.
NAPI
A. Travel
B. Happiness
C. Life
D. Love
6. Rearrange the parts of the sentence in the correct order.
The absence of
P. data on the migrant workers was
Q. formulating effective policy decisions and
R. preventing the governments from
S. strategies for the welfare of migrant workers
A. QPRS
B. RPQS
C. PSRQ
D. PRQS
7. Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the sentences in the correct order to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph.
A. A glimpse of its rich cultural heritage can be found through the great monuments and other historical sites it has.
B. India has a vast cultural and linguistic diversity which make the country culturally rich.
C. These monuments and historical sites are the symbols of India’s diversity.
D. Several historical sites and monuments are identified as UN Heritage Sites.
A. CDAB
B. BADC
C. BACD
D. ABCD
8. The length and breadth of a rectangle are increased by 8% and 5%, respectively. By how much percentage will the area of the rectangle increase?
A. 13.4%
B. 15.4%
C. 12.4%
D. 16.4%
9. The sum of two numbers is 680. If the bigger number is decreased by 15% and the smaller number is increased by 15%, then the resultant numbers are equal. Find the smaller number.
A. 307
B. 285
C. 289
D. 304
10. The ratio of the present age of the father to that of his son is 7 : 2. If after 10 years the ratio of their ages becomes 9 : 4, then the present age of the father is:
A. 43 years
B. 35 years
C. 37 years
D. 40 years
11. Aarif, Arun, and Abraham can do work in 12, 20, and 24 days, respectively. They all begin together. Arun leaves the work 3 days and Abraham 4 days before its completion. In how many days is the work finished?
A. 8
B. 10
C. 11
D. 9
12. A boat moves 25 km upstream and 39 km downstream in 8 hours. It travels 35 km upstream and 52 km downstream in 11 hours. What is the speed of the stream if it travels at a uniform speed?
A. 4 km/hr
B. 5 km/hr
C. 6 km/hr
D. 3 km/hr
13. The number of ways we can put 5 different balls in 5 different boxes such that at most three boxes is empty, is equal to
A.
B.
C.
D. none of these
14. A person lent a certain sum of money at the annual rate of 25 percent on simple interest. In 6 years the interest amounted to Rs. 360 more than the sum lent. What is the sum lent?
A. Rs. 600
B. Rs. 360
C. Rs. 720
D. Rs. 540
15. Directions: A plane flies 100 km west, then turns south and flies 150 km, then turns west and flies 300 km, then turns to its right and flies 150 km. Where is it now with reference to its starting position?
A. 400 km east
B. 200 km west
C. 400 km west
D. 200 km east
16. Directions: Among four books, Book 1 is twice as heavy as Book 2. Book 3's weight is half of Book 2's weight. Book 4 is 60 grams more as compared to Book 2, but 60 grams less as compared to Book 1. Which book is the heaviest?
A. Book 1
B. Book 2
C. Book 3
D. Book 4
17. Directions: In a row of 74 girls, Shweta is 27th from the left end. Palak is 7th to the right of Shweta. What is Palak's position from the right end of the row?
A. 40
B. 41
C. 42
D. 44
18. Directions: There are five friends, P, Q, R, S, and T who have different heights in a class. P's height is more than only one student. Q's height is more than S and P but not more than R. S's height is more than P. R is not the smallest. Who has the maximum height in the class?
A. Q
B. R
C. S
D. T
19. Directions: Hitesh, Sunny, Vicky, Nitin, and Bharat are arranged in ascending order of height from the top. Hitesh is in third place. Bharat is between Nitin and Hitesh, while Nitin is not at the bottom. Who has the maximum height among them?
A. Hitesh
B. Sunny
C. Vicky
D. Nitin
20. Directions: If Seshan is taller than Ammu but shorter than Raju and Ammu is just as tall as Nitin but taller than Kishore, then which of the following statements is true for Nitin?
A. Just as tall as Seshan
B. Shorter than Ammu
C. Taller than Raju
D. Shorter than Seshan
21. Directions: If Jhansi is 12 ahead in the rank of Prabha, who ranks 15th from last, then how many students are there in the class if Jhansi ranks 4th in order of merit?
A. 23
B. 27
C. 30
D. 31
22. Prime Minister Employment Generation Program (PMEGP) scheme was launched by which ministry of the Government of India?
A. Ministry of Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises
B. Ministry of Finance
C. Ministry of Rural Development
D. Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs
23. Which of the following is not an advantage of E-Commerce?
A. Cost saving and price reduction
B. Late response to customer needs
C. Wider choice
D. Improved customer services
24. Which species of mangrove tree found in the Sundarbans of India and Bangladesh is scientifically known as 'Heritiera formes'?
A. Kachnar
B. Sundari
C. Safflower
D. Arjun
25. Where is Bhimrao Ambedkar Multipurpose Stadium situated?
A. Faizabad
B. Ghaziabad
C. Kanpur
D. Patna
26. When did the Constitution of WHO come into force - a date which we now celebrate as World Health Day every year?
A. 5 April 1948
B. 7 April 1948
C. 6 April 1948
D. 8 April 1948
27. What is the full form of NEFT?
A. National Electronic Funds Transfer
B. National Electronic Financial Transaction
C. National Electronic Fund Transfer
D. None of the above
28. Which among the following lakes is also known as the "Srinagar's Jewel"?
A. Tsomgo
B. Vembanad
C. Dal
D. Loktak
1- C, 2- C, 3- B, 4- B, 5- B, 6- D, 7- C, 8- A, 9- C, 10- B, 11- A, 12- A, 13- A, 14- C, 15- B, 16- A, 17- B, 18- B, 19- D, 20- D, 21- C, 22- A, 23- B, 24- B, 25- A, 26- B, 27- A, 28-C
===============================================================================================================================
1. Correct option: C. A & C
Explanation: The pricing strategies of competitors and technological advancements in the industry are both critical factors that influence the outcome of a competitive analysis.
2. Correct option: C. A & C
Explanation: Understanding competitor weaknesses can indeed lead to strategic advantages, and market trends significantly impact a company's competitive position.
3. Correct option: B. B only
Explanation: The statement that competitors do not affect a company’s performance if it has a loyal customer base is not true; competitors can still influence performance regardless of customer loyalty.
4. Here the actual words are: A. PAPER B. TRIANGLE C. BOOK D. MAGAZINE
Now all except TRIANGLE are types of reading materials. So Option B is right.
5. The rearranged word is "PAIN."
Now, let's find the opposite meaning:
A. Travel
B. Happiness
C. Life
D. Love
The word that is opposite in meaning to "PAIN" is B. Happiness.
6. The fourth option is the correct answer.
It begins by highlighting (P), indicating a crucial information gap. Following this, the sequence moves to (R), explaining the consequence of the data absence in hindering policy development. The subsequent segment (Q) adds that the absence of data impedes the formulation of comprehensive strategies for the well-being of these workers (S).
7.The correct choice is the third option.
Explanation:
In sentence B, the paragraph begins by introducing the broad concept of India's vast cultural and linguistic diversity, which contributes significantly to its cultural richness.
Following this, sentence A elaborates on this richness by mentioning the presence of great monuments and historical sites, giving a glimpse into the depth of India's cultural heritage.
Sentence C further connects these monuments and historical sites back to India's diversity, presenting them as symbols thereof.
Finally, sentence D adds a concrete and significant detail by mentioning that some of these sites are recognised globally as UN Heritage Sites, emphasising their historical and cultural importance within the context of India's diverse heritage.
Therefore, the correct order is BACD.
8. Let the length and breadth be l and b, respectively.
Therefore, the original area = lb.
Length after an 8% increase = 1.08l
Breadth after a 5% increase = 1.05b
Therefore, the new area = 1.08l × 1.05b = 1.134lb
Therefore, the percentage increase in area = ((1.134lb - lb) / lb) × 100 = 13.4%
Hence, the correct answer is 13.4%.
9. Let the bigger number be x.
Smaller number = 680 - x
According to the question:
x × (1 - 15%) = (680 - x) × (1 + 15%)
⇒ x / (680 - x) = 23 / 17
⇒ 17x = 23 × 680 - 23x
⇒ 40x = 23 × 680
⇒ x = 23 × 17
⇒ x = 391
So, the smaller number = 680 - 391 = 289
Hence, the correct answer is 289.
10. Let the present age of the father be 7x years, and the present age of the son be 2x years.
After 10 years, the father's age will be 7x + 10, and the son's age will be 2x + 10.
According to the question,
After 10 years, the ratio of their ages will be 9 : 4.
Therefore, (7x + 10) / (2x + 10) = 9 / 4
=> 4(7x + 10) = 9(2x + 10)
=> 28x + 40 = 18x + 90
=> 28x - 18x = 90 - 40
=> 10x = 50
=> x = 5
So, the present age of the father is 7x = 7 × 5 = 35 years.
Hence, the correct answer is 35 years.
11. Let x represent the total time taken by them in days.
Given: Efficiency of Aarif = 120 / 12 = 10 Efficiency of Arun = 120 / 20 = 6 Efficiency of Abraham = 120 / 24 = 5
According to the question: 10x + 6(x - 3) + 5(x - 6) = 120
Expand and solve the equation: 10x + 6x - 18 + 5x - 30 = 120 21x - 48 = 120 21x = 168 x = 168 / 21 x = 8
Therefore, the correct answer is 8 days.
12. Let the speed of the boat be x and that of the stream be y.
According to the question:
25/(x-y) + 39/(x+y) = 8 (1) 35/(x-y) + 52/(x+y) = 11 (2)
Multiply equation (1) by 4 and equation (2) by 3 and then subtract equation (2) from (1), we get:
100/(x-y) - 105/(x-y) = 32 - 33 => -5/(x-y) = -1 => x-y = 5 (3)
Now, putting the value of x-y in equation (1), we get:
5 + 39/(x+y) = 8 => 39/(x+y) = 3 => x+y = 13 (4)
Now, Subtracting equation (3) from equation (4),
(x+y) - (x-y) = 13 - 5 => 2y = 8 => y = 4
So, the speed of the stream is 4 km/hr.
13. The number of ways of putting all the balls in exactly one box As for each ball, there are 5 choices for the box the number of ways of putting balls in the boxes Thus, the required number of ways of putting the balls in the boxes
Hence, the answer is the option (1).
14. Let the sum be Rs. x.
Simple interest = x + 360
We know that simple interest is calculated as:
Simple interest = (Principal × Rate × Time) / 100
According to the question:
x + 360 = (x × 25 × 6) / 100
Simplifying:
x + 360 = (150x) / 100
x + 360 = 1.5x
360 = 1.5x - x
360 = 0.5x
x = 360 / 0.5
x = 720
Hence, the correct answer is Rs. 720.
15. Firstly, we will draw the diagram as per the given instructions –
Now, we have to find the distance from the starting point to the endpoint –
The distance from the starting point to the endpoint = 300 + 100 = 400 km
Therefore, the plane is in the west direction with respect to its starting point, and the distance between its starting point and final point is 400 km. Hence, the third option is correct.
16. Given:
Let W1 be the weight of Book 1, W2 be the weight of Book 2, W3 be the weight of Book 3 and W4 be the weight of Book 4.
I. Book 1 is twice as heavy as Book 2.
W1 > W2.
II. Book 3's weight is half of Book 2's weight.
W2 > W3.
III. Book 4 is 60 grams more than Book 2, but 60 grams less than Book 1. After combining all these statements –
W1 > W4 > W2 > W3.
Therefore, Book 1 is the heaviest of all. Hence, the first option is correct.
17. Given:
Shweta is 27th from the left end, Palak is 7th to the right of Shweta, and the total number of girls in a row is 74.
Palak's position from the left end is 27 + 7 = 34. This means that there are 33 girls to the left of Palak in a row.
Palak's position from the right end = 74 (total number of girls in a row) – 33 (number of girls left of Palak) = 41
Therefore, Palak is at the 41st position from the right end. Hence, the second option is correct.
18. P's height is more than only one student. So, the arrangement is –
Students |
P |
Q's height is more than S and P but not more than R. So, the arrangement is –
Students |
R |
Q |
P |
S's height is more than P. So, the arrangement is –
Students |
R |
Q |
S |
P |
T will occupy the last remaining place. Thus, the final arrangement of students in the order of their height –
Students |
R |
Q |
S |
P |
T |
Therefore, R has the maximum height in the class. Hence, the second option is correct.
19. Given:
Hitesh is in third place and Bharat is between Nitin and Hitesh, while Nitin is not at the bottom.
Based on the information given, the order is –
People |
Nitin |
Bharat |
Hitesh |
The remaining two places can be occupied by either Sunny or Vicky. So, the final order will be –
People |
Nitin |
Bharat |
Hitesh |
Sunny / Vicky |
Vicky / Sunny |
Therefore, Nitin has the maximum height among them. Hence, the fourth option is correct.
20. Given:
Seshan is taller than Ammu but shorter than Raju.
Raju > Seshan > Ammu
Ammu is just as tall as Nitin but taller than Kishore.
Ammu = Nitin > Kishore
By concluding all the given information, we have –
Kishore < Nitin = Ammu < Seshan < Raju
Let's check the options –
First option: Just as tall as Seshan; Nitin is shorter than Seshan.
Second option: Shorter than Ammu; Nitin is just as tall as Ammu.
Third option: Taller than Raju; Nitin is shorter than Raju.
Fourth option: Shorter than Seshan; Nitin is shorter than Seshan.
So, Nitin only relates to the statement of the fourth option. Hence, the fourth option is correct.
21. Given:
Jhansi is 12 ahead in the rank of Prabha, who ranks 15th from last, and Jhansi ranks 4th in order of merit.
Prabha's rank from last = 15
The rank of Jhansi from last = 15 + 12 = 27
The rank of Jhansi from the starting = 4
Total number of students in class = Jhansi's rank from last + Jhansi's rank from starting – 1
= 27 + 4 – 1 = 30
So, there are a total of 30 students in the class. Hence, the third option is correct.
22. The correct answer is the Ministry of Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises.
The Ministry of Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises (MSME) is responsible for overseeing the PMEGP, a central sector program. The program was introduced in 2008. The scheme is in the central sector. KVIC is implementing the strategy at the nodal level. The PMEGP program was created by the national government to give young people without jobs in the nation work possibilities.
23. The correct answer is Late response to customer needs.
"Late response to customer needs" is not an advantage of E-Commerce. In the online realm, customers have elevated expectations regarding timely service and responsiveness. Inaction on consumer needs might result in a dearth of business and customer dissatisfaction.
24. The correct answer is Sundari.
One species of mangrove tree in the Malvaceae family is Heritiera fomes. Among its colloquial names are Pinlekanazo, Jekanazo, Sunder, and Sundari. Approximately 70% of the trees in the Sundarbans of Bangladesh and India are of this main species of mangrove tree.
25. The correct option is Faizabad.
The Bhimrao Ambedkar Multipurpose Stadium is situated in Faizabad, Uttar Pradesh, India. The stadium is part of a multi-crore project for a sports complex in Faizabad, funded by the state government.
26. The correct answer is 7 April 1948.
The Constitution of the World Health Organisation (WHO) came into force on April 7, 1948. This date is now celebrated annually as World Health Day. World Health Day is a global health awareness day that provides an opportunity to focus worldwide attention on important health issues and promote awareness and understanding of global health priorities.
27. The correct answer is(a). National Electronic Funds Transfer
The full form of NEFT is National Electronic Funds Transfer. NEFT is an electronic funds transfer system in India that facilitates interbank transfers of funds. It enables individuals, companies, and organizations to electronically transfer funds from one bank account to another across different participating banks in India. NEFT operates on a deferred net settlement basis, where transactions are processed in batches at specific settlement timings throughout the day.
28. The correct answer is Dal.
Dal is one of Srinagar's lakes. It's an urban lake, the second biggest in Jammu and Kashmir's Union territory. It is also known as the "Lake of Flowers," "Jewel in the Crown of Kashmir," or "Srinagar's Jewel."
Mock tests are decisive for the candidate’s success. However, it is the responsibility of the candidate to choose the right mock test series to understand themselves and curate their UPESMET preparation.
This UPESMET mock test is designed by the Careers360 team after careful analysis of the official UPESMET sample paper and materials. The questions follow the official examination structure and difficulty.
Elaborated solutions for each answer ensure that all the residual doubts of the candidates are cleared in time.
The careful analysis of the previous year's question paper and the difficulty levels ensure that the students can also analyze their speed and accuracy. This helps the candidates to identify any room for improvement and work on it accordingly.
Proper time allocation is key to maximizing your performance during mock tests. Start by dividing the total available time equally among the sections, ensuring you have enough time to attempt questions from each area. It's important to stick to these time limits to avoid spending too much time on one section at the expense of others. Practising this during mock tests will help you develop a natural sense of how much time to allocate per section during the actual exam.
Improving your speed and accuracy is essential for achieving high scores. Regular practice with mock tests can help you become more familiar with the types of questions and the pace you need to maintain. Use techniques like skimming through questions to quickly identify and tackle the easier ones first. This not only saves time but also boosts your confidence. Additionally, focus on accuracy to minimize negative marking; answer only those questions you are reasonably sure about and make educated guesses when necessary.
Recognizing and avoiding common time-wasting pitfalls can greatly enhance your performance. One common mistake is spending too much time on a single difficult question, which can eat into the time reserved for other questions. If you find yourself stuck, it's better to move on and return to the difficult question later if time permits. Another pitfall is not having a clear strategy; entering the test without a plan can lead to disorganized time management. Practice developing and sticking to a strategic plan during your mock tests to ensure you manage your time efficiently.
Candidates often require a few UPESMET online preparation materials to enhance their UPESMET preparation. Careers360 has shortlisted a few UPESMET preparation books for the candidates. They are listed below.
Book Title | Authors | Category | Key Features |
How to Prepare for Quantitative Aptitude for the CAT | Arun Sharma | Quantitative Aptitude | Comprehensive coverage, various difficulty levels, practice questions, solved examples |
Quantitative Aptitude for CAT | Nishit Sinha | Quantitative Aptitude | Detailed explanations, practice questions, CAT-specific strategies |
Quantitative Aptitude Quantum CAT | Sarvesh Verma | Quantitative Aptitude | Conceptual clarity, practice questions, tips and tricks for quick problem-solving |
How to Prepare for Verbal Ability and Reading Comprehension for CAT | Meenakshi Upadhyay, Arun Sharma | Verbal Ability & Reading Comprehension | Comprehensive coverage, practice exercises, tips for RC and verbal ability |
Logical Reasoning and Data Interpretation for the CAT | Nishit K. Sinha | Data Interpretation & Logical Reasoning | Detailed explanations, practice questions, and strategies for solving DI and LR problems |
A Modern Approach to Logical Reasoning | R.S. Aggarwal | Data Interpretation & Logical Reasoning | Extensive practice questions, and step-by-step solutions, cover a variety of logical reasoning topics |
Word Power Made Easy | Norman Lewis | Verbal Ability | Vocabulary building, easy-to-follow exercises, practical usage of words |
High School English Grammar & Composition | Wren & Martin | Verbal Ability | Grammar rules, practice exercises, composition tips |
Quantitative Aptitude for Competitive Examinations | Abhijit Guha | Quantitative Aptitude | Extensive practice questions, and detailed solutions, suitable for various competitive exams |
Data Interpretation & Data Sufficiency | Ananta Ashish | Data Interpretation & Logical Reasoning | Comprehensive coverage of DI and DS topics, practice questions, strategies for quick solving |
CAT Data Interpretation & Logical Reasoning | Gautam Puri | Data Interpretation & Logical Reasoning | Detailed explanations, practice questions, CAT-specific strategies |
PSC for VA for CAT | Nishit Sinha | Verbal Ability & Reading Comprehension | Practice exercises, tips for RC and verbal ability, CAT-specific strategies |
30 Days to a More Powerful Vocabulary | Dr. Wilfred Funk, Norman Lewis | Verbal Ability | Vocabulary-building exercises, practical usage of words, easy-to-follow format |
The Pearson Guide to Verbal Ability and Reading Comprehension for CAT | Nishit Sinha | Verbal Ability & Reading Comprehension | Comprehensive coverage, practice exercises, CAT-specific strategies |
Are you still in need of more resources to strengthen your UPESMET preparations? Don’t worry Careers360 has got you covered. Candidates can download and study the following expertly crafted ebooks and resources for management exam preparation.
eBook Title | Download Links |
3000+ Most Important Words - Vocabulary Builder | |
500+ Most Important Idioms and Phrases | |
300+ Most Important Phrasal Verbs | |
Permutation & Combination - Video Lectures and Practice Questions | |
Mastering DILR Questions with Expert Solutions |
UPESMET is generally considered to have a moderate level of difficulty. It requires a solid understanding of the subjects covered in the exam, such as quantitative aptitude, logical reasoning, data interpretation, and general awareness. With proper preparation and consistent practice, many candidates find UPESMET manageable. However, the perceived difficulty can vary depending on individual strengths and weaknesses.
The UPESMET exam is a two-hour online test with multiple-choice questions. It covers four sections: General English, Quantitative Aptitude, General Awareness, and Analytical & Logical Reasoning. Candidates are assessed on language skills, math abilities, current affairs knowledge, and logical thinking. Preparation involves practising MCQs and managing time effectively during the exam.
The application fee for UPESMET is Rs 1350. This fee is required to complete the application process for the exam. It's advisable to check the official UPESMET website or the latest notifications for any updates or changes regarding the application fee.
No, UPESMET does not have a negative marking. This means that candidates are not penalized for incorrect answers. It's beneficial for the candidates as they can attempt all questions without the fear of losing marks for wrong answers.
For each right answer, the candidate is given one mark.
Hello!
In order to appear for CMAT exam 2022, you must have done a minimum of 3 years of graduation in any stream. There is no age limit set by NTA to appear for this exam. You must be a citizen of India. For executive PGDM course, you must have done graduation degree in any discipline along with 5 years of minimum experience. For PGCM course, you must have passed graduation degree in any discipline. For MBA and PGDM, you have to pass Bachelor’s degree in any stream.
Moreover, UPESMET syllabus consists of Quantitative Aptitude, Analytical Reasoning, English and General Awareness while CMAT syllabus consists of Quantitative Techniques and Data Interpretation, Logical Reasoning, Language Comprehension and General Awareness + Innovation and Entrepreneurship (Optional subject). So the syllabus is more or less similar for both the examination. With hardwork and practice, you can crack the exams.
For further information, please refer to these links:
https://bschool.careers360.com/exams/cmat
https://bschool.careers360.com/exams/upesmet
Best wishes
Hi
MBA is one of the courses which is gaining a huge momentum and has a lot of prospects in the future. It offers very lucrative jobs as a manager in different mnc's and much more
MBA fees in india ranges from rs 20,000 to rs 40 lakhs for two year full time program. On an average proper MBA colleges costs about rs 7.5 to 25 lakhs. Fee structure changes with the college you want to study in, but that is an overall idea.
Check out the link to know more:
https://bschool.careers360.com/colleges/list-of-mba-colleges-in-india
Hope this helps
Hey,
If you're planning to complete your mba offline then you can go for distance mba. This is most soughted mba and nowadays more preferred mba amoug students. The major advantage of Distance MBA programmes is that the course can be pursued along with full time work, without hampering any professional commitments. Some students also tend to go for Masters in another discipline but decide to get an MBA degree alongside, without wasting 2 more year.
Although the courses differ from programme to programme, the core courses generally include finance, accounting, management, marketing, global or international business, and technology. Following is the list of top course offered in Distance MBA programmes.
E-Business
Education Management
You can check the link below to get a detailed analysis of the same-
https://bschool.careers360.com/articles/distance-mba-what-why-and-how
Hope this helps.
Hello,
Odisha Joint Entrance Examination Committee will release the OJEE MBA 2021 important dates in online mode on the official website. According to the important dates of OJEE MBA 2021, the registration process is likely to start tentatively from the fourth week of January, 2021. The exact dates have not yet released. The last date to fill the application from will be in the last week of April 2020.
No i do not want to join in M.SC chemistry.Because i am pursuing an engineering degree at present.
A career as Marketing Director is also known as a marketing expert who is responsible for the overall marketing aspect of the company. He or she oversees plans and develops the company's budget. The marketing Director collaborates with the business team to plan and develop the marketing and branding strategies for the company's products or services.
A Business Development Executive (BDE) is a professional responsible for identifying growth opportunities and fostering strategic partnerships to enhance a company's market position. Typically, a BDE conducts market research, analyses industry trends, and identifies potential clients or business prospects. He or she plays a crucial role in developing and implementing sales strategies to achieve revenue targets.
A BDE often collaborates with cross-functional teams, including marketing and product development, to align business objectives. Strong communication, negotiation, and relationship-building skills are essential for success in this role. BDE strives to expand the company's customer base, drive sales, and contribute to overall organisational growth in a dynamic and competitive business environment.
Content Marketing Specialists are also known as Content Specialists. They are responsible for crafting content, editing and developing it to meet the requirements of digital marketing campaigns. To ensure that the material created is consistent with the overall aims of a digital marketing campaign, content marketing specialists work closely with SEO and digital marketing professionals.
A sales manager is a revenue-generating source for a company. Any organisation or company which sells a commodity or service requires sales to generate revenue. A Sales manager is a professional responsible for supervising the sales team. An Individual as a sales manager works closely with salespeople, assigns sales territories, sets quotas, mentors the members of the sales, assigns sales training, and builds a sales plan.
The Sales Manager work also includes hiring and laying off sales personnel after evaluating his or her work performance. In bigger entities, sales quotas and plans are usually set at the executive level. He or she is responsible for overseeing the set target or quotas met by salespeople or upholding any policy. He or she guides his or her fellow salespeople and allows them to sell.
Individuals who opt for a career as a business analyst look at how a company operates. He or she conducts research and analyses data to improve his or her knowledge about the company. This is required so that an individual can suggest the company strategies for improving their operations and processes.
In a business analyst job role a lot of analysis is done, things are learned from past mistakes and the successful strategies are enhanced further. A business analyst goes through real-world data in order to provide the most feasible solutions to an organisation. Students can pursue Business Analytics to become Business Analysts.
A marketing manager is a person who oversees a company or product marketing. He or she can be in charge of multiple programmes or goods or can be in charge of one product. He or she is enthusiastic, organised, and very diligent in meeting financial constraints. He or she works with other team members to produce advertising campaigns and decides if a new product or service is marketable.
A Marketing manager plans and executes marketing initiatives to create demand for goods and services and increase consumer awareness of them. A marketing manager prevents unauthorised statements and informs the public that the business is doing everything to investigate and fix the line of products. Students can pursue an MBA in Marketing Management courses to become marketing managers.
An SEO Analyst is a web professional who is proficient in the implementation of SEO strategies to target more keywords to improve the reach of the content on search engines. He or she provides support to acquire the goals and success of the client’s campaigns.
Digital marketing is growing, diverse, and is covering a wide variety of career paths. Each job function aids in the development of effective digital marketing strategies and techniques. The aims and objectives of the individuals who opt for a career as a digital marketing executive are similar to those of a marketing professional: to build brand awareness, promote company services or products, and increase conversions. Individuals who opt for a career as Digital Marketing Executives, unlike traditional marketing companies, communicate effectively through suitable technology platforms.
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