UPESMET Mock Tests: Free Online Practice Test, Pattern, Sample Questions

UPESMET 2026: An Overview

Before the candidates set sail into their UPESMET examination, they candidates should completely understand the UPESMET exam format and shape their preparation accordingly. Given below is the overview of the UPESMET examination.

UPESMET Exam Pattern 2026

Before setting sail towards the UPES examination, it is important to completely understand the UPESMET exam pattern and structure the preparation accordingly. The official UPESMET examination pattern is given below:

Types of Questions Asked in the UPESMET Exam

The UPESMET exam assesses candidates on language skills, logical thinking, quantitative aptitude, and analytical ability. Understanding the types of questions asked in the UPESMET exam helps candidates prepare effectively, improve their UPESMET mock test performance, and develop the right strategy for the UPESMET MBA entrance exam.

Reading Comprehension Questions

Candidates read a passage and answer questions based on its theme, tone, inference, or factual details.

Example:
A passage discusses the impact of AI on businesses. What is the author's primary argument?

Vocabulary and Verbal Ability Questions

This section includes synonyms, antonyms, fill-in-the-blanks, sentence correction, para jumbles, idioms, and grammar-based questions.

Example:
Choose the correct synonym of "Meticulous".
A. Careless
B. Thorough
C. Lazy
D. Simple

Answer: B. Thorough

Quantitative Aptitude Questions

Questions are asked from arithmetic, algebra, percentages, averages, ratio and proportion, profit and loss, time and work, geometry, and number systems.

Example:
A shopkeeper offers a 20% discount on a ₹2,500 product. What is the selling price?

Answer: ₹2,000

Logical Reasoning Questions

These questions test analytical thinking through seating arrangements, coding-decoding, blood relations, syllogisms, puzzles, and statement-conclusion problems.

Example:
If A is the brother of B, B is the sister of C, and C is the father of D, how is A related to D?

Answer: Uncle

Data Interpretation Questions

Candidates analyse data presented in tables, graphs, charts, or caselets and answer calculation-based questions.

Example:
A company's sales were ₹40 lakh in 2024 and ₹50 lakh in 2025. What is the percentage increase?

Answer: 25%

Critical Reasoning Questions

These questions evaluate a candidate's ability to analyse arguments, identify assumptions, strengthen or weaken statements, and draw logical conclusions.

Example:
Statement: "Online learning improves student performance."

Question: Which option strengthens the above statement?

A. Students using online platforms scored 15% higher in examinations.
B. Some students prefer offline classes.
C. Internet costs have increased.
D. Schools have reduced classroom hours.

Answer: A. Students using online platforms scored 15% higher in examinations.

Business and General Awareness Questions

Questions may cover current affairs, business news, economics, government initiatives, corporate events, and management concepts.

Example:
Which organisation conducts the monetary policy review in India?

A. SEBI
B. RBI
C. NABARD
D. NITI Aayog

Answer: B. RBI

UPESMET Topic-Wise Weightage Based on Official Sample Paper

It is always advisable for the candidates to understand the chapter-wise weightage to structure their UPESMET preparation accordingly. This weightage is given after the analysis of the official sample paper released by the UPES university for the UPESMET exam.

UPESMET Mock Test by Careers360

UPESMET requires extensive preparation and when it comes to preparation, there is no better preparation methodology than UPESMET mock tests. The link to the complete UPESMET mock test designed by Careers360 is given below:

Let us discuss a few UPESMET mock questions.

Questions

Directions (Questions 1-3): Study the passages below and answer the questions that follow each passage.

Competitive analysis is a critical component of strategic planning for businesses. It involves assessing the strengths and weaknesses of current and potential competitors in the market. This analysis helps companies identify opportunities for differentiation, understand market trends, and anticipate competitor actions. Key factors influencing competitive analysis include market share, product quality, customer service, pricing strategies, and marketing effectiveness. By regularly evaluating competitors, businesses can adjust their strategies to maintain a competitive edge.

1. What are the primary factors that influence the outcome of a competitive analysis?

A. The pricing strategies of competitors
B. The customer service quality provided
C. The technological advancements in the industry

A. A & B
B. B & C
C. A & C
D. A, B & C

2. Which of the following statements are true according to the passage?

A. Understanding competitor weaknesses can lead to strategic advantages for a business.
B. Regularly analyzing competitors is unnecessary in a stable market.
C. Market trends can significantly impact a company's competitive position.

A. A only
B. C only
C. A & C
D. A, B & C

3. Which of the following statements is/are not true?

A. A comprehensive competitive analysis can prevent businesses from making costly mistakes.
B. Competitors do not affect a company’s performance if it has a loyal customer base.
C. Ignoring competitive analysis can lead to missed opportunities for innovation.
A. A only
B. B only
C. A & C
D. B & C

4. Rearrange the jumbled alphabets in the following four options and find the odd word among them.

A. PAERP

B. RIALSETNG

C. KOOB

D. ZMIAGANE

5. Directions: Rearrange the following jumbled word and select the word which is opposite in meaning to the rearranged word.

NAPI

A. Travel

B. Happiness

C. Life

D. Love

6. Rearrange the parts of the sentence in the correct order.

The absence of
P. data on the migrant workers was
Q. formulating effective policy decisions and
R. preventing the governments from
S. strategies for the welfare of migrant workers

A. QPRS

B. RPQS

C. PSRQ

D. PRQS

7. Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the sentences in the correct order to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph.

A. A glimpse of its rich cultural heritage can be found through the great monuments and other historical sites it has.

B. India has a vast cultural and linguistic diversity which make the country culturally rich.

C. These monuments and historical sites are the symbols of India’s diversity.

D. Several historical sites and monuments are identified as UN Heritage Sites.

A. CDAB

B. BADC

C. BACD

D. ABCD

8. The length and breadth of a rectangle are increased by 8% and 5%, respectively. By how much percentage will the area of the rectangle increase?

A. 13.4%

B. 15.4%

C. 12.4%

D. 16.4%

9. The sum of two numbers is 680. If the bigger number is decreased by 15% and the smaller number is increased by 15%, then the resultant numbers are equal. Find the smaller number.

A. 307

B. 285

C. 289

D. 304

10. The ratio of the present age of the father to that of his son is 7 : 2. If after 10 years the ratio of their ages becomes 9 : 4, then the present age of the father is:

A. 43 years

B. 35 years

C. 37 years

D. 40 years

11. Aarif, Arun, and Abraham can do work in 12, 20, and 24 days, respectively. They all begin together. Arun leaves the work 3 days and Abraham 4 days before its completion. In how many days is the work finished?

A. 8

B. 10

C. 11

D. 9

12. A boat moves 25 km upstream and 39 km downstream in 8 hours. It travels 35 km upstream and 52 km downstream in 11 hours. What is the speed of the stream if it travels at a uniform speed?

A. 4 km/hr

B. 5 km/hr

C. 6 km/hr

D. 3 km/hr

13. The number of ways we can put 5 different balls in 5 different boxes such that at most three boxes is empty, is equal to

A. 5⁵ - 5

B. 5⁵ - 10

C. 2⁵ - 2

D. none of these

14. A person lent a certain sum of money at the annual rate of 25 percent on simple interest. In 6 years the interest amounted to Rs. 360 more than the sum lent. What is the sum lent?

A. Rs. 600

B. Rs. 360

C. Rs. 720

D. Rs. 540

15. Directions: A plane flies 100 km west, then turns south and flies 150 km, then turns west and flies 300 km, then turns to its right and flies 150 km. Where is it now with reference to its starting position?

A. 400 km east

B. 200 km west

C. 400 km west

D. 200 km east

16. Directions: Among four books, Book 1 is twice as heavy as Book 2. Book 3's weight is half of Book 2's weight. Book 4 is 60 grams more as compared to Book 2, but 60 grams less as compared to Book 1. Which book is the heaviest?

A. Book 1

B. Book 2

C. Book 3

D. Book 4

17. Directions: In a row of 74 girls, Shweta is 27th from the left end. Palak is 7th to the right of Shweta. What is Palak's position from the right end of the row?

A. 40

B. 41

C. 42

D. 44

18. Directions: There are five friends, P, Q, R, S, and T who have different heights in a class. P's height is more than only one student. Q's height is more than S and P but not more than R. S's height is more than P. R is not the smallest. Who has the maximum height in the class?

A. Q

B. R

C. S

D. T

19. Directions: Hitesh, Sunny, Vicky, Nitin, and Bharat are arranged in ascending order of height from the top. Hitesh is in third place. Bharat is between Nitin and Hitesh, while Nitin is not at the bottom. Who has the maximum height among them?

A. Hitesh

B. Sunny

C. Vicky

D. Nitin

20. Directions: If Seshan is taller than Ammu but shorter than Raju and Ammu is just as tall as Nitin but taller than Kishore, then which of the following statements is true for Nitin?

A. Just as tall as Seshan

B. Shorter than Ammu

C. Taller than Raju

D. Shorter than Seshan

21. Directions: If Jhansi is 12 ahead in the rank of Prabha, who ranks 15th from last, then how many students are there in the class if Jhansi ranks 4th in order of merit?

A. 23

B. 27

C. 30

D. 31

22. Prime Minister Employment Generation Program (PMEGP) scheme was launched by which ministry of the Government of India?

A. Ministry of Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises

B. Ministry of Finance

C. Ministry of Rural Development

D. Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs

23. Which of the following is not an advantage of E-Commerce?

A. Cost saving and price reduction

B. Late response to customer needs

C. Wider choice

D. Improved customer services

24. Which species of mangrove tree found in the Sundarbans of India and Bangladesh is scientifically known as 'Heritiera formes'?

A. Kachnar

B. Sundari

C. Safflower

D. Arjun

25. Where is Bhimrao Ambedkar Multipurpose Stadium situated?

A. Faizabad

B. Ghaziabad

C. Kanpur

D. Patna

26. When did the Constitution of WHO come into force - a date which we now celebrate as World Health Day every year?

A. 5 April 1948

B. 7 April 1948

C. 6 April 1948

D. 8 April 1948

27. What is the full form of NEFT?

A. National Electronic Funds Transfer

B. National Electronic Financial Transaction

C. National Electronic Fund Transfer

D. None of the above

28. Which among the following lakes is also known as the "Srinagar's Jewel"?

A. Tsomgo

B. Vembanad

C. Dal

D. Loktak

Answer Key

========================================================================================================================================================================================================

1- C, 2- C, 3- B, 4- B, 5- B, 6- D, 7- C, 8- A, 9- C, 10- B, 11- A, 12- A, 13- A, 14- C, 15- B, 16- A, 17- B, 18- B, 19- D, 20- D, 21- C, 22- A, 23- B, 24- B, 25- A, 26- B, 27- A, 28-C

========================================================================================================================================================================================================

Solutions

1. Correct option: C. A & C
Explanation: The pricing strategies of competitors and technological advancements in the industry are both critical factors that influence the outcome of a competitive analysis.

2. Correct option: C. A & C
Explanation: Understanding competitor weaknesses can indeed lead to strategic advantages, and market trends significantly impact a company's competitive position.

3. Correct option: B. B only
Explanation: The statement that competitors do not affect a company’s performance if it has a loyal customer base is not true; competitors can still influence performance regardless of customer loyalty.

4. Here the actual words are: A. PAPER B. TRIANGLE C. BOOK D. MAGAZINE

Now all except TRIANGLE are types of reading materials. So Option B is right.

5. The rearranged word is "PAIN."

Now, let's find the opposite meaning:

A. Travel
B. Happiness
C. Life
D. Love

The word that is opposite in meaning to "PAIN" is B. Happiness.

6. The fourth option is the correct answer.

It begins by highlighting (P), indicating a crucial information gap. Following this, the sequence moves to (R), explaining the consequence of the data absence in hindering policy development. The subsequent segment (Q) adds that the absence of data impedes the formulation of comprehensive strategies for the well-being of these workers (S).

7.The correct choice is the third option.

Explanation:

• In sentence B, the paragraph begins by introducing the broad concept of India's vast cultural and linguistic diversity, which contributes significantly to its cultural richness.

• Following this, sentence A elaborates on this richness by mentioning the presence of great monuments and historical sites, giving a glimpse into the depth of India's cultural heritage.

• Sentence C further connects these monuments and historical sites back to India's diversity, presenting them as symbols thereof.

• Finally, sentence D adds a concrete and significant detail by mentioning that some of these sites are recognised globally as UN Heritage Sites, emphasising their historical and cultural importance within the context of India's diverse heritage.

Therefore, the correct order is BACD.

8. Let the length and breadth be l and b, respectively.

Therefore, the original area = lb.

Length after an 8% increase = 1.08l

Breadth after a 5% increase = 1.05b

Therefore, the new area = 1.08l × 1.05b = 1.134lb

Therefore, the percentage increase in area = ((1.134lb - lb) / lb) × 100 = 13.4%

Hence, the correct answer is 13.4%.

9. Let the bigger number be x.

Smaller number = 680 - x

According to the question:

x × (1 - 15%) = (680 - x) × (1 + 15%)

⇒ x / (680 - x) = 23 / 17

⇒ 17x = 23 × 680 - 23x

⇒ 40x = 23 × 680

⇒ x = 23 × 17

⇒ x = 391

So, the smaller number = 680 - 391 = 289

Hence, the correct answer is 289.

10. Let the present age of the father be 7x years, and the present age of the son be 2x years.

After 10 years, the father's age will be 7x + 10, and the son's age will be 2x + 10.

According to the question,

After 10 years, the ratio of their ages will be 9 : 4.

Therefore, (7x + 10) / (2x + 10) = 9 / 4

=> 4(7x + 10) = 9(2x + 10)

=> 28x + 40 = 18x + 90

=> 28x - 18x = 90 - 40

=> 10x = 50

=> x = 5

So, the present age of the father is 7x = 7 × 5 = 35 years.

Hence, the correct answer is 35 years.

11. Let x represent the total time taken by them in days.

Given: Efficiency of Aarif = 120 / 12 = 10 Efficiency of Arun = 120 / 20 = 6 Efficiency of Abraham = 120 / 24 = 5

According to the question: 10x + 6(x - 3) + 5(x - 6) = 120

Expand and solve the equation: 10x + 6x - 18 + 5x - 30 = 120 21x - 48 = 120 21x = 168 x = 168 / 21 x = 8

Therefore, the correct answer is 8 days.

12. Let the speed of the boat be x and that of the stream be y.

According to the question:

25/(x-y) + 39/(x+y) = 8 (1) 35/(x-y) + 52/(x+y) = 11 (2)

Multiply equation (1) by 4 and equation (2) by 3 and then subtract equation (2) from (1), we get:

100/(x-y) - 105/(x-y) = 32 - 33 => -5/(x-y) = -1 => x-y = 5 (3)

Now, putting the value of x-y in equation (1), we get:

5 + 39/(x+y) = 8 => 39/(x+y) = 3 => x+y = 13 (4)

Now, Subtracting equation (3) from equation (4),

(x+y) - (x-y) = 13 - 5 => 2y = 8 => y = 4

So, the speed of the stream is 4 km/hr.

13. The number of ways of putting all the balls in exactly one box = 5. As for each ball, there are 5 choices for the box the number of ways of putting balls in the boxes = 5⁵

Thus, the required number of ways of putting the balls in the boxes = 5⁵ - 5

Hence, the answer is the option (1).

14. Let the sum be Rs. x.

Simple interest = x + 360

We know that simple interest is calculated as:

Simple interest = (Principal × Rate × Time) / 100

According to the question:

x + 360 = (x × 25 × 6) / 100

Simplifying:

x + 360 = (150x) / 100

x + 360 = 1.5x

360 = 1.5x - x

360 = 0.5x

x = 360 / 0.5

x = 720

Hence, the correct answer is Rs. 720.

15. Firstly, we will draw the diagram as per the given instructions –

Now, we have to find the distance from the starting point to the endpoint –

The distance from the starting point to the endpoint = 300 + 100 = 400 km

Therefore, the plane is in the west direction with respect to its starting point, and the distance between its starting point and final point is 400 km. Hence, the third option is correct.

16. Given:
Let W1 be the weight of Book 1, W2 be the weight of Book 2, W3 be the weight of Book 3 and W4 be the weight of Book 4.

I. Book 1 is twice as heavy as Book 2.
W1 > W2.
II. Book 3's weight is half of Book 2's weight.
W2 > W3.
III. Book 4 is 60 grams more than Book 2, but 60 grams less than Book 1. After combining all these statements –
W1 > W4 > W2 > W3.

Therefore, Book 1 is the heaviest of all. Hence, the first option is correct.

17. Given:
Shweta is 27th from the left end, Palak is 7th to the right of Shweta, and the total number of girls in a row is 74.

Palak's position from the left end is 27 + 7 = 34. This means that there are 33 girls to the left of Palak in a row.

Palak's position from the right end = 74 (total number of girls in a row) – 33 (number of girls left of Palak) = 41

Therefore, Palak is at the 41st position from the right end. Hence, the second option is correct.

18. P's height is more than only one student. So, the arrangement is –

Q's height is more than S and P but not more than R. So, the arrangement is –

S's height is more than P. So, the arrangement is –

T will occupy the last remaining place. Thus, the final arrangement of students in the order of their height –

Therefore, R has the maximum height in the class. Hence, the second option is correct.

19. Given:
Hitesh is in third place and Bharat is between Nitin and Hitesh, while Nitin is not at the bottom.
Based on the information given, the order is –

The remaining two places can be occupied by either Sunny or Vicky. So, the final order will be –

Therefore, Nitin has the maximum height among them. Hence, the fourth option is correct.

20. Given:
Seshan is taller than Ammu but shorter than Raju.
Raju > Seshan > Ammu
Ammu is just as tall as Nitin but taller than Kishore.
Ammu = Nitin > Kishore
By concluding all the given information, we have –
Kishore < Nitin = Ammu < Seshan < Raju

Let's check the options –
First option: Just as tall as Seshan; Nitin is shorter than Seshan.
Second option: Shorter than Ammu; Nitin is just as tall as Ammu.
Third option: Taller than Raju; Nitin is shorter than Raju.
Fourth option: Shorter than Seshan; Nitin is shorter than Seshan.

So, Nitin only relates to the statement of the fourth option. Hence, the fourth option is correct.

21. Given:
Jhansi is 12 ahead in the rank of Prabha, who ranks 15th from last, and Jhansi ranks 4th in order of merit.

Prabha's rank from last = 15
The rank of Jhansi from last = 15 + 12 = 27
The rank of Jhansi from the starting = 4
Total number of students in class = Jhansi's rank from last + Jhansi's rank from starting – 1
= 27 + 4 – 1 = 30

So, there are a total of 30 students in the class. Hence, the third option is correct.

22. The correct answer is the Ministry of Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises.

The Ministry of Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises (MSME) is responsible for overseeing the PMEGP, a central sector program. The program was introduced in 2008. The scheme is in the central sector. KVIC is implementing the strategy at the nodal level. The PMEGP program was created by the national government to give young people without jobs in the nation work possibilities.

23. The correct answer is Late response to customer needs.

"Late response to customer needs" is not an advantage of E-Commerce. In the online realm, customers have elevated expectations regarding timely service and responsiveness. Inaction on consumer needs might result in a dearth of business and customer dissatisfaction.

24. The correct answer is Sundari.

One species of mangrove tree in the Malvaceae family is Heritiera fomes. Among its colloquial names are Pinlekanazo, Jekanazo, Sunder, and Sundari. Approximately 70% of the trees in the Sundarbans of Bangladesh and India are of this main species of mangrove tree.

25. The correct option is Faizabad.

The Bhimrao Ambedkar Multipurpose Stadium is situated in Faizabad, Uttar Pradesh, India. The stadium is part of a multi-crore project for a sports complex in Faizabad, funded by the state government.

26. The correct answer is 7 April 1948.

The Constitution of the World Health Organisation (WHO) came into force on April 7, 1948. This date is now celebrated annually as World Health Day. World Health Day is a global health awareness day that provides an opportunity to focus worldwide attention on important health issues and promote awareness and understanding of global health priorities.

27. The correct answer is(a). National Electronic Funds Transfer

The full form of NEFT is National Electronic Funds Transfer. NEFT is an electronic funds transfer system in India that facilitates interbank transfers of funds. It enables individuals, companies, and organizations to electronically transfer funds from one bank account to another across different participating banks in India. NEFT operates on a deferred net settlement basis, where transactions are processed in batches at specific settlement timings throughout the day.

28. The correct answer is Dal.

Dal is one of Srinagar's lakes. It's an urban lake, the second biggest in Jammu and Kashmir's Union territory. It is also known as the "Lake of Flowers," "Jewel in the Crown of Kashmir," or "Srinagar's Jewel."

Why Should Candidates Attempt the UPESMET Mock Tests Designed by Careers360?

Mock tests are decisive for the candidate’s success. However, it is the responsibility of the candidate to choose the right mock test series to understand themselves and curate their UPESMET preparation.

• This UPESMET mock test is designed by the Careers360 team after careful analysis of the official UPESMET sample paper and materials. The questions follow the official examination structure and difficulty.

• Elaborated solutions for each answer ensure that all the residual doubts of the candidates are cleared in time.

• The careful analysis of the previous year's question paper and the difficulty levels ensures that the students can also analyze their speed and accuracy. This helps the candidates to identify any room for improvement and work on it accordingly.

How to Utilise UPESMET Mock Test Performance?

UPESMET mock tests are one of the most effective tools for improving your exam readiness. However, simply attempting a UPESMET mock test is not enough. Candidates should analyse their UPESMET mock test performance, identify weak areas, improve time management, and revise concepts based on data.

Analyse Section-wise Scores

Instead of focusing only on your overall UPESMET mock test score, evaluate your performance in every section. Record the number of questions attempted, correct answers, incorrect responses, accuracy percentage, and average time per question. Compare section-wise scores across at least 5-10 UPESMET online mock tests to identify trends. If one section consistently contributes less than your target score, allocate more preparation time to that area. This data-driven approach improves your overall UPESMET exam preparation.

Analyse Your Mistakes

Every UPESMET practice mock test should end with a detailed error analysis. Categorise mistakes into conceptual errors, calculation mistakes, incorrect question interpretation, silly errors, and poor time management. Maintain an error notebook containing difficult questions and frequently repeated topics. Reviewing this report before every new UPESMET mock test helps eliminate recurring mistakes and strengthens concept retention. Candidates who regularly analyse errors generally achieve more consistent improvement than those who only attempt multiple mock tests.

Improve Accuracy

A successful UPESMET preparation strategy focuses on balancing speed with accuracy. Calculate your accuracy percentage after every UPESMET online mock test by dividing correct answers by total attempted questions. For example, attempting 85% of the paper with 90% accuracy usually produces a stronger score than attempting every question with frequent errors. Monitor both metrics after each UPESMET mock test series and gradually increase attempts without compromising accuracy.

Improve Time Management

Time management plays a crucial role in achieving a competitive UPESMET score. Review the time spent on every section and identify question types that consume more time than expected. Set target completion times for each section and compare them across multiple UPESMET mock tests. If a particular topic repeatedly slows you down, revise the concept and practise topic-wise questions before taking another UPESMET practice test.

Create a Revision Plan

Your UPESMET mock test analysis should directly influence your revision schedule. List topics where your accuracy falls below your target benchmark and prioritise them during revision. Complete concept revision, solve topic-wise questions, and then reattempt similar questions in the next UPESMET mock test. This targeted revision strategy improves learning efficiency and boosts your UPESMET exam score.

Track Your Progress

The real value of a UPESMET mock test series lies in measuring improvement over time. Maintain a performance tracker that records your UPESMET mock test scores, section-wise marks, accuracy percentage, number of attempts, and time taken after each test. Comparing data from multiple UPESMET mock tests helps you evaluate your preparation level and make timely improvements before the UPESMET MBA entrance exam.

Top Resources to Ace UPESMET Exam 2026

Are you still in need of more resources to strengthen your UPESMET preparations? Don’t worry Careers360 has got you covered. Candidates can download and study the following expertly crafted ebooks and resources for management exam preparation.