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The Common Admission Test or the CAT examination will most probably be conducted in the month of November 2025. With each passing year, the competitive nature of the CAT examination is observed to be on the rise, and this makes securing admissions slightly more difficult. IIM Kozhikode is entrusted to conduct the CAT 2025 examination. Some candidates might have started their CAT 2025 preparation earlier and be going strong with their CAT 2025 preparation, but for the candidates who are yet to start their CAT 2025 preparation, it is suggested that they begin preparing for the CAT exam with the help of the various CAT important topics for the 2025 exam. With the help of analysing the previous year’s question papers, Careers360 has noted down a few important CAT topics that the candidates should prioritise to ensure a good CAT 2025 score.
In 2024, while the expected number of questions in the CAT question paper was 66, the Data Interpretation and Logical Reasoning section included 2 more questions, making the total 68. Hence, predicting the exact CAT 2025 exam pattern might be slightly difficult. According to the CAT 2024 question paper, the CAT 2025 exam pattern is as follows:
Particulars | CAT Exam Pattern and Syllabus |
CAT exam time duration | 2 Hours (120 Minutes) & (160 Minutes for PwD) |
Name of the Section | - Verbal Ability & Reading Comprehension (VARC) - Data Interpretation & Logical Reasoning (DILR) - Quantitative Aptitude (QA) |
Section-wise CAT exam time duration | - 40 Minutes for Each Section (VARC, DILR, QA) - 53 Minutes 20 Seconds for PwD candidates for each section |
CAT slot timings | - CAT slot 1 timing: 8:30 am - 10:30 am (Morning Session) - CAT slot 2 timing: 12:30 pm - 2:30 pm (Afternoon Session) - CAT slot 3 timing: 4:30 pm - 6:30 pm (Evening Session) |
Number of Questions | 68 Questions |
Total Marks | 204 CAT marks |
Mode of the CAT 2025 exam | Computer-Based Mode (CBT) |
CAT Marking Scheme | - For every right answer, +3 will be awarded - For every wrong answer in MCQs, -1 will be deducted - No negative marks for Non-MCQs |
With almost 6 months left for the CAT 2025 preparation of the candidates, now is the ideal time to begin for the candidates and to make the most out of their remaining time for CAT 2025 preparation. With the help of analysing the CAT previous year question papers, Careers360 has compiled a set of topics that can help the candidates increase their output. The topics are divided in the basis of sections and are listed below.
The CAT Verbal Ability and Reading Comprehension section is the first section of the CAT exam. While this section can be tricky at times and consuming due to the length of the passage, it can be tackled with practice. Based on the analysis of the previous year's question papers and exam trends, the most important topics that the students must concentrate on while preparing for the CAT VARC section are as follows:
CAT 2025: 10 Most Important Topics - Verbal Ability and Reading Comprehension | |
Topics | Para Summary |
Para Completion | |
Reading Comprehension |
In the CAT 2024 question paper, 3 questions were asked alone from the para summary section. In this type of question, the candidates will be given a short passage followed by 4 alternate summaries. After going through the passage, the candidates must choose the best possible alternate summary that applies to the question. While these questions may not be challenging, the presence of multiple options that may resemble the possible answer may confuse the candidates.
1. DIRECTIONS for the question: The passage given below is followed by four alternate summaries. Choose the option that best captures the essence of the passage.
Question:
The weight of society's expectations is hardly a new phenomenon but it has become particularly draining over recent decades, perhaps because expectations themselves are so multifarious and contradictory. The perfectionism of the 1950 s was rooted in the norms of mass culture and captured in famous advertising images of the ideal white American family that now seem self- satirising. In that era, perfectionism meant seamlessly conforming to values, behaviour and appearance: chiselled confidence for men, demure graciousness for women. The perfectionist was under pressure to look like everyone else, only more so. The perfectionists of today, by contrast, feel an obligation to stand out through their idiosyncratic style and wit if they are to gain a foothold in the attention economy.
The desire to attract attention is so deep-rooted in individual consciousness that people are willing to go to any lengths to achieve it.
Though long-standing, the pressure to appear perfect and thereby attract attention, has evolved over time from one of conformism to one of non-conformism.
The image of perfectionism is reflected in and perpetuated by the media; and people do their best to addere to these ideals.
The pressure to appear perfect has been the cause of tension and conflict because the idea itself has been in a state of flux and hard to define.
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Answer:
Explanation: Option 2 accurately reflects the passage's discussion on the shift from conformity to individuality in societal perfectionism. The other options either oversimplify, focus on the media's role, or emphasize tensions not central to the passage's main point.
Hence, the correct answer is option(2).
2. The passage given below is followed by four alternate summaries. Choose the option that best captures the essence of the passage.
Foreign peacekeepers often exist in a bubble in the poor countries in which they are deployed; they live in posh compounds, drive fancy vehicles, and distance themselves from locals. This may be partially justified as they are outsiders, living in constant fear, and performing a job that is emotionally draining. But they are often despised by the locals, and many would like them to leave. A better solution would be bottom-up peacebuilding, which would involve spending more time working with communities, understanding their grievances and earning their trust, rather than only meeting government officials.
The environment in poor countries has tended to make foreign peacekeeping forces live in enclaves, but it is time to change this scenario.
Peacekeeping duties would be more effectively performed by local residents given their better understanding, knowledge and rapport with their own communities.
Peacekeeping forces in foreign countries have tended to be aloof for valid reasons but would be more effective if they worked more closely with local communities.
Extravagant lifestyles and an aloof attitude among the foreigners working as peacekeepers in poor countries have justifiably make them the target of local anger.
The paragraph given states that while foreign peacekeepers, due to some valid reasons, tend to live in a bubble in the poor countries where they are deployed, a bottom-up peacebuilding approach working in concert with the locals would be more effective. Option C summarises the paragraph well.
Hence, the correct answer is option(3).
The candidates should read the passage carefully. They must ensure that they understand the central idea before looking at the options.
Priority must be given to focusing on the core message that the author is trying to portray.
If a candidate feels that a particular detail is ambiguous or irrelevant, they can ignore it
While shortlisting the possible right options, the candidates should ensure that those options follow the logical structure of the paragraph.
To make solving easier, the candidates can eliminate options that introduce points not mentioned in the paragraph.
The candidates should also solve multiple questions to get familiar with different styles and tones of paragraphs.
Similar to the para summary section, the candidates can also expect around 3 questions from this topic. In a para completion topic, the candidates are provided with a sentence and another passage with multiple blanks in it. The candidates should analyse both the options and the passage and find the best possible blank where the given sentence can be inserted and it fits logically. These questions are comparatively easier and can be dealt with the help of practice.
1. Directions: There is a sentence missing in the paragraph below. Look at the paragraph and decide in which blank (option 1, 2, 3, or 4) the following sentence would best fit.
Question:
Sentence: And probably much earlier, moving the documentation for kissing back 1,000 years compared to what was acknowledged in the scientific community.
Paragraph: Research has hypothesised that the earliest evidence of human lip kissing originated in a very specific geographical location in South Asia 3,500 years ago._(1)_. From there it may have spread to other regions, simultaneously accelerating the spread of the herpes simplex virus 1. According to Dr Troels Pank Arbøll and Dr Sophie Lund Rasmussen, who in a new article in the journal Science draw on a range of written sources from the earliest Mesopotamian societies, kissing was already a well-established practice 4,500 years ago in the Middle East._(2)_. In ancient Mesopotamia, people wrote in cuneiform script on clay tablets._(3)_. Many thousands of these clay tablets have survived to this day, and they contain clear examples that kissing was considered a part of romantic intimacy in ancient times._(4)_. "Kissing could also have been part of friendships and family members' relations," says Dr Troels Pank Arbøll, an expert on the history of medicine in Mesopotamia.
Sentence 1
Sentence 2
Sentence 3
Sentence 4
Solution:
Explanation:
The sentence fits best in option (2). The sentence discusses how the evidence for kissing shifts its timeline back by 1,000 years based on research findings. It logically follows the mention of Dr. Troels Pank Arbøll and Dr. Sophie Lund Rasmussen’s argument that kissing was a well-established practice 4,500 years ago, thereby refining and extending the historical timeline. Placing it in option (2) ensures the flow of ideas about the revised historical understanding of kissing.
Hence, the answer is option (2).
2. Directions: There is a sentence missing in the paragraph below. Look at the paragraph and decide in which blank (option 1, 2, 3, or 4) the following sentence would best fit.
Question:
Sentence: Dualism was long held as the defining feature of developing countries in contrast to developed countries, where frontier technologies and high productivity were assumed to prevail.
Paragraph: _(1)_. At the core of development economics lies the idea of 'productive dualism': that poor countries' economies are split between a narrow 'modern' sector that uses advanced technologies and a larger 'traditional' sector characterized by very low productivity._(2)_. While this distinction between developing and advanced economies may have made some sense in the 1950s and 1960s, it no longer appears to be very relevant. A combination of forces has produced a widening gap between the winners and those left behind._(3)_. Convergence between poor and rich parts of the economy was arrested, and regional disparities widened._(4). As a result, policymakers in advanced economies are now grappling with the same questions that have long preoccupied developing economies: mainly how to close the gap with the more advanced parts of the economy.
Sentence 1
Sentence 2
Sentence 3
Sentence 4
Solution:
Explanation: The missing sentence introduces the concept of dualism and its historical association with developing countries as opposed to developed ones. Placing it at the beginning of the paragraph (option 1) sets the stage for the discussion of "productive dualism" and how the distinction between developing and advanced economies has evolved. The rest of the paragraph then builds on this idea by discussing changes over time and the convergence of challenges faced by both types of economies.
Hence, the answer is option (1).
The candidates must thoroughly read the given passage at first. They must understand the structure, tone, and flow of the paragraph before trying to place the given sentence.
Next, they should go through the given sentence and see the type of sentence, whether it is introductory, explanatory, contrasting, or concluding.
One good practice for solving these types of problems is to look for links. The candidates should try to find keywords or themes in the sentence and match them with similar ideas in the paragraph.
After choosing the possible right place for inserting the sentence, the candidates should check that the logical flow of the passage is maintained. If not immediately, try with the other options.
In some cases, the paragraph follows a time-based or idea-building sequence. Make sure the inserted sentence respects this order.
Lastly, the candidates should practice a lot of questions under the para completion topics to master the various types of questions that can be asked under this topic.
CAT Reading comprehension is undoubtedly one of the most important topics of the entire CAT question paper. Previous year question paper analysis has shown that almost 80% of the questions from the VARC section of the CAT exam comprise the Reading Comprehension questions. The candidates will be provided with a passage, and possibly 4 questions will be asked on the basis of it. The candidates should choose the best possible answer from the given topics. The major issue that the candidates face with the reading comprehension questions is the length of the passages and the shortage of time for solving the questions. But if a candidate wishes to enhance their CAT VARC scores, they must prioritise solving the CAT RC questions first because it is of very high weightage.
DIRECTIONS for the question: The passage below is accompanied by a set of questions. Choose the best answer to each question.
The biggest challenge [The Nutmeg's Curse by Chosh] throws down is the prevailing understanding of when the climate crisis started. Most of us have accepted . . . that it started with the widespread use of coal at the beginning of the Industrial Age in the 18th century and worsened with the mass adoption of oil and natural gas in the 20th, Ghosh takes this history at least three centuries back, to the start of European colonialism in the 15th century. He [starts] the book with a 1621 massacre by Dutch invaders determined to impose a monopoly on nutmeg cultivation and trade in the Banda islands in today's Indonesia. Not only do the Dutch systematically depopulate the islands through genocide, but they also try their best to bring nutmeg cultivation into plantation mode. These are the two points to which Ghosh returns through examples from around the world. One, is how European colonialists decimated not only indigenous populations but also indigenous understanding of the relationship between humans and Earth. Two, how this was an invasion not only of humans but of the Earth itself, and how this continues to the present day by looking at nature as a 'resource' to exploit. . .
We know we are facing more frequent and more severe heatwaves, storms, floods, droughts and wildfires due to climate change. We know our expansion through deforestation, dam building, and canal cutting - in short, terraforming, the word Ghosh uses - has brought us repeated disasters... Are these the responses of an angry Gaia who has finally had enough? By using the word 'curse' in the title, the author makes it clear that he thinks so. use the pronoun 'who' knowingly, because Chosh has quoted many non-European sources to enquire into the relationship between humans and the world around them so that he can question the prevalent way of looking at Earth as an inert object to be exploited to the maximum.
As Ghosh" 's text, notes and bibliography show once more, none of this is new. There have always been challenges to the way European colonialists looked at other civilisations and at Earth. It is just that the invaders and their myriad backers in the fields of economics, politics, anthropology, philosophy, literature, technology, physics, chemistry, and biology have dominated global intellectual discourse....
There are other points of view that we can hear today if we listen hard enough. Those observing global climate negotiations know about the Latin American way of looking at Earth as Pachamama (Earth Mother). They also know how such a framing is just provided lip service and is ignored in the substantive portions of the negotiations. In The Nutmeg's Curse, Ghosh explains why. He shows the extent of the vested interest in the oil economy - not only for oil-exporting countries but also for a superpower like the US that controls oil drilling, oil prices and oil movement around the world. Many of us know power utilities are sabotaging decentralised solar power generation today because it hits their revenues and control. And how the other points of view are so often drowned out.
Question:
All of the following can be inferred from the reviewer's discussion of "The Nutmeg" 's Curse", EXCEPT:
The history of climate change is deeply intertwined with the history of colonialism.
The contemporary dominant perception of nature and the environment was put in place by processes of colonialism.
Environmental preservation policy makers can learn a lot from non-European and/or pre-colonial societies.
Academic discourses have always served the function of raising awareness about environmental preservation.
Explanation: The passage suggests that academic discourses often supported colonial viewpoints rather than consistently raising awareness about environmental preservation.
Option 1 is incorrect as the passage implies a link between colonialism and climate change.
Option 2 is incorrect because the passage suggests contemporary views of nature stem from colonialist processes.
Option 3 is incorrect because the passage indicates that non-European and pre-colonial societies offer valuable insights into environmental policy.
Hence, the correct answer is option(4).
2. Question:
Which one of the following best explains the primary purpose of the discussion of the colonisation of the Banda Islands In "The Nutmeg's Curse"?
To illustrate how systemic violence against the colonized constituted the cornerstone of colonialism.
To illustrate the first instance in history when the processes responsible for climate change were initiated.
To illustrate how colonialism represented and perpetuated the mindset that has led to climate change.
To illustrate the role played by the cultivation of certain crops in the plantation mode in contributing to climate change.
Explanation: The passage uses the Dutch colonization of the Banda Islands as an example of how European colonialism's exploitation of Earth contributed to the current climate crisis.
Option 1 is incorrect because systemic violence is not the main focus in the context of climate change.
Option 2 is incorrect as the passage does not suggest this was the first instance of climate change.
Option 4 is incorrect because the passage does not primarily focus on crop cultivation's role in climate change.
Hence, the correct answer is option(3).
Focus on the central theme or argument the author is making throughout the passage.
Don’t pause after every line. Read one paragraph at a time to get the complete idea.
Identify if the tone is critical, analytical, neutral, or persuasive. This helps in answering tone and inference-based questions.
Candidates should also focus on eliminating the wrong options first. It will help to increase the chances of finding the right answer.
The candidates should also make a note on the presence of the contrasting words such as “but”, “however”, and “although”. These areas might indicate a change or shift in the author’s perspective.
The candidates should also try to improve their vocabulary because a lot of questions can be asked from this topic, including synonyms, antonyms and idioms and phrases.
Even if the candidate does not support the views of the author, they must stick to the author’s perspective without forming any bias to answer the questions correctly.
The Data Interpretation and Logical Reasoning topic of the CAT exam can, at times, be confusing and slightly challenging. But while analysing the exam trends and previous year questions, we can observe that there exist a few topics that have a high probability of appearing in the CAT exam. Prioritising these topics and beginning the CAT DILR 2025 preparation can bring positive changes for the candidates. The list of topics that must be prioritised under the CAT DILR section is:
CAT 2025: 10 Most Important Topics -Data Interpretation and Logical Reasoning | |
Topics | Graphs |
Routes and Networks | |
Reasoning-Based Data Interpretation |
Graph is one such topic under the DILR section, which is a sure shot to be asked in the CAT examination. There are a variety of graph types, and questions can be framed from any of these. In all three sets of the CAT 2024 examination, there were questions on the graph concepts. For anyone starting their CAT DILR preparation, they must begin with the graph concept and solve the various types of graph questions that can be asked from this topic. The various types of graphs include:
Bar Graphs
Pie Charts
Line Graphs
Candlestick Graphs
Plot Charts
Histograms
Radar Graphs
Innovative Graphs
Directions: The horizontal bars in the above diagram represent 2020 aggregate sales (in million) of a company for the different subcategories of its products. The top four product subcategories (Bookcases, Chairs, Furnishings, Tables) belong to furniture product category; the bottom four product subcategories (Accessories, Copiers, Machines, Phones) belong to the technology product category while all other product subcategories belong to the office supply product category. For each of the product subcategories, there is a vertical line indicating the sales of the corresponding subcategory in 2019.
Question 1: The improvement index for a category is the maximum percentage increase in sales from 2019 to 2020 among any of its subcategories. The correct order of categories in increasing order of this improvement index is
technology, furniture, office supply
furniture, technology, office supply
office supply, technology, furniture
office supply, furniture, technology
The improvement index for a category is the maximum percentage increase in sales from 2019 to 2020 among any of its subcategories.
Hence based on the information provided in the tabular data we need to look for the different subcategories where the rise in sales from 2019 to 2020 is higher.
Based on the visual data:
In the furniture category:
Bookcases and Chairs have a relatively high percentage increase:
Books cases: 1.9 million to 2.2 million (15.7 percent increase)
Chairs: 6.2 million to 7 million (12.9 percent increase)
In the office supply category:
Binders and Appliances have a relatively high percentage increase:
Binders: 3.6 million to 5.3 million (47 percent increase)
Appliances: 1.9 million to 3.15 million (65.7 percent increase)
In technology product category:
Accessories: 3.1 to 4.4 million. (41.9 percent increase)
Phones: 5.8 million to 7.7 million (32.7 percent increase)
Hence among the categories:
The highest increase among them is in the order:
Furniture < Technology < office supply.
Hence, the second option is correct.
2. Question: How many subcategories had sales of 4 million or more in 2019 and registered an increase in sales in excess of 25% in 2020?
6
2
1
5
The number of subcategories had sales of ₹ 4 million or more in 2019 and registered an increase in sales in excess of 25% in 2020:
The subcategories with more than 4 million in sales in 2019 are:
Chairs: 6.2 million in 2019 and 7 million in 2020. (For a 25 percent increase the sales must be at least 7.8 million and hence fails)
Tables: 4.4 million in 2019 and 4.5 million in 2020. (For a 25 percent increase the sales must be at least 5.5 million and hence fails)
Storage: 4.3 million sales in 2019 and 5.1 million in 2020. (For a 25 percent increase the sales must be at least 5.4 and hence fails)
Phones: 5.75 million in 2019 and 7.5 million in 2020. (An increase of 30.5 percent)
Thus, only one subcategory satisfies the condition.
Hence, the third option is correct.
The first and foremost approach while solving the graph question is to identify the type of graph asked in the question. (bar graph, line graph, pie chart, table, or mixed graph, etc)
The candidates should read all the labels very carefully. They must check all the units, scales, legends, and axis titles to avoid misinterpretation.
Reading the question first before analysing the graph is better because this helps the candidate to understand what they should be focusing on.
Candidates should not go by any assumptions and use the data given in the question.
Having a good basic understanding of topics such as percentages, ratios, and averages etc, can help the candidates because they are widely used in data interpretation questions.
The questions on routes and networks are also tested frequently in the CAT exam. This is a type of logical reasoning question in which a passage will be given to the candidates, and they must answer the questions based on the passage. Routes and Networks involve problems related to paths, connections, travel routes, or networks (like roads, trains, pipelines, etc.). There will be nodes which can be cities, buildings, etc, which are connected by paths which can be pipelines, roads, etc. Constraints will also be provided, and the candidate should answer the questions by keeping them in mind.
A delivery company operates in a city with several warehouses and delivery routes. There are four warehouses: P, Q, R, and S. The delivery routes connect these warehouses and are used to transport goods efficiently. The distances between the warehouses are as follows:
P to Q: 5 kilometres
P to R: 8 kilometres
P to S: 10 kilometres
Q to R: 6 kilometres
Q to S: 9 kilometres
R to S: 7 kilometres
1. Directions: Every day a widget supplier supplies widgets from the warehouse (W) to four locations - Ahmednagar (A), Bikrampore (B), Chitrachak (C), and Deccan Park (D). The daily demand for widgets in each location is uncertain and independent of each other. Demands and corresponding probability values (in parenthesis) are given against each location (A, B, C, and D) in the figure below. For example, there is a 40% chance that the demand in Ahmednagar will be 50 units and a 60% chance that the demand will be 70 units. The lines in the figure connecting the locations and warehouse represent two-way roads connecting those places with the distances (in km) shown beside the line. The distances in both directions along a road are equal. For example, the road from Ahmednagar to Bikrampore and the road from Bikrampore to Ahmednagar are both 6 km long.
Every day the supplier gets the information about the demand values of the four locations and creates the travel route that starts from the warehouse and ends at a location after visiting all the locations exactly once. While making the route plan, the supplier goes to the locations in decreasing order of demand. If there is a tie for the choice of the next location, the supplier will go to the location closest to the current location.
Also, while creating the route, the supplier can either follow the direct path (if available) from one location to another or take the path via the warehouse. If both paths are available (direct and via warehouse), the supplier will choose the path with minimum distance.
Question 1: If Ahmednagar is not the first location to be visited on a route and the total route distance is 29 km, then which of the following is a possible number of widgets delivered on that day?
210
220
200
250
According to the question, two cases arise:
Case 1:
If the demand at Ahmednagar is 70, then the demand at Chitrachak will be 100, and Ahmednagar will not be the first location.
Thus, 170 is covered from the first two locations.
Therefore, the total number of widgets that can be delivered can be:
= 170 + (30, 40), (30, 60), (50, 40), (50, 60)
Either 240, 260, or 280.
Case 2:
If the demand at Ahmednagar is 50, then it will not be the first location.
Therefore, the total number of widgets that can be delivered can be:
= 50 + (30, 40, 70), (30, 40, 100), (30, 60, 70), (30, 60, 100), (50, 40, 70), (50, 40, 100), (50, 60, 70), (50, 80, 100)
Either 190 or 210 or 230 or 220
From the given options, the answer can be either 210 or 220.
Let us check the total distances covered in each case.
Sub Case 1: 210 : (70 – 60 – 50 – 30)
Total distance covered:
12 km (Warehouse to Chitrachak) + 4 km (Chitrachak to Bikrampore) + 6 km (Bikrampore to Ahmednagar) + 7 km (Ahmednagar to Deccan Park)
= 29 km
Sub Case 2: 220 : (100 – 50 – 40 – 30)
Total distance covered:
12 km (Warehouse to Chitrachak) + 17 km (Chitrachak to Ahmednagar) + 6 km (Ahmednagar to Bikrampore) + 12 km (Bikrampore to Deccan Park)
= 47 km
Thus, in only sub-case 1, we get a route distance of 29 km.
Hence, the fourth option is correct.
2. Question: If the first location visited from the warehouse is Ahmednagar, then what is the chance that the total distance covered in the route is 40 km?
18%
5.4%
3.24%
30%
It is given that the first location visited from the warehouse is A.
If A's demand is 50 units, C's demand should be less than 50 units which is not possible.
This implies demand for locations A and C is 70 units.
A (70 units) > C (70 units)
Warehouse to A - 5 km
A to C-17 km
Distance covered = 5 + 17 = 22 km
Remaining distance = 40 - 22 = 18 km; C to B - 4 km; B to D - 12 km
Distance covered = 4 + 12 = 16 km 18 km; C to D-6 km; D to B -12 km
Distance covered = 6 + 12 =18 km
Therefore, the supplier can cover a distance of 18 km if he visits D before B, i.e. the demand of D should be more than the demand of B. This is only possible when D's demand is 50 units and B's demand is 40 units.
It is given,
D - 50 units -60 % probability
B - 40 units -30 % probability
Therefore, the required value = 0.6 × 0.3 = 0.18 = 18%
Hence, the first option is correct.
One of the best methods is to visualise the entire question by drawing a clean and labelled diagram.
The candidates should also be aware of what is asked in the question. Usually, routes and network questions focus on topics such as:
The number of possible routes
The shortest or longest path
The total distance or time
Conditions like avoiding repeated nodes
If certain paths are blocked or can’t be repeated, eliminate those paths before calculation.
If the question restricts revisiting nodes or paths, keep track of visited nodes to prevent counting duplicates.
If multiple routes and conditions are involved, create a table to organise the possibilities. (In case the time permits).
While analysing the most recent previous year papers of the CAT examination, it can be seen that the questions from the reasoning-based concepts are getting repeated more. These questions will involve distributing or arranging a set of elements (like people, cities, events, or items) based on given constraints. While it may seem confusing at first, it can be easily solved with practice.
Directions: A journal plans to publish 18 research papers, written by eight authors (A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H) in four journal issues scheduled in January, April, July and October. Each research paper was written by exactly one of the eight authors. Five papers were scheduled for each of the first two issues, while four were scheduled for each of the last two issues. Every author wrote at least one paper and at most three papers. The total number of papers written by A, D, G and H was double the total number of papers written by the other four authors. Four of the authors were from India and two each were from Japan and China. Each author belonged to exactly one of the three areas — Manufacturing, Automation and Logistics. Four of the authors were from the Logistics area and two were from the Automation area. As per the journal policy, none of the authors could have more than one paper in any issue of the journal. The following facts are also known.
1. F, an Indian author from the Logistics area, wrote only one paper. It was scheduled in the October issue.
2. A was from the Automation area and did not have a paper scheduled in the October issue.
3. None of the Indian authors were from the Manufacturing area and none of the Japanese or Chinese authors were from the Automation area.
4. A and H were from different countries but had their papers scheduled in the same issues.
5. C and E, both Chinese authors from different areas, had the same number of papers scheduled. Further, E had papers scheduled in consecutive issues of the journal but C did not.
6. B, from the Logistics area, had a paper scheduled in the April issue of the journal.
7. B and G belonged to the same country. None of their papers were scheduled in the same issue of the journal.
8. D, a Japanese author from the Manufacturing area, did not have a paper scheduled in the July issue.
9. C and H belonged to different areas.
Question: Which of the following is the correct sequence of the number of papers by authors from the Automation, Manufacturing and Logistics areas, respectively?
6, 5, 7
6, 7, 5
6, 6, 6
5, 6, 7
According to the information:
Since, the total number of papers written by A, D, G and H was double the total number of papers written by the other authors.
A + D + G + H = 12 papers and B + C + E + F = 6 papers
Therefore, A = D = G = H = 3 papers
According to conditions (1) and (5), B, C, E and F had 1, 2, 2, and 1 papers respectively.
From condition (3), A was an Indian author.
From condition (7), B and G were Indian authors.
From condition (4), A and H were Indian and Japanese authors respectively. Therefore, F was an Indian author and G was from the Automation area.
From condition (9), C and H were from the Manufacturing and Logistics areas respectively. Therefore, E was from Logistics.
The given information can be shown as:
Author | Papers | Month | Country | Area |
A | 3 | October | India | Automation |
B | 1 | April | India | Logistics |
C | 2 | China | Manufacturing | |
D | 3 | July | Japan | Manufacturing |
E | 2 | China | Logistics | |
F | 1 | October | India | Logistics |
G | 3 | India | Automation | |
H | 3 | Japan | Logistics |
From condition (4), A and H had their issues in January, April and July months.
From condition (5), E had issues in April, and July and C had in January, and October months.
From condition (7), G had issues in January, July and October months.
From condition (8), D had issues in January, April and October months.
The final arrangement can be shown as:
Author | Papers | Month | Country | Area |
A | 3 | January, April, July | India | Automation |
B | 1 | April | India | Logistics |
C | 2 | January, October | China | Manufacturing |
D | 3 | January, April, October | Japan | Manufacturing |
E | 2 | April, July | China | Logistics |
F | 1 | October | India | Logistics |
G | 3 | January, July, October | India | Automation |
H | 3 | January, April, July | Japan | Logistics |
Therefore, the correct sequence of the number of papers by authors from the Automation, Manufacturing and Logistics areas, respectively is 6,5,7.
Hence, the first option is correct.
2. Question: Which of the following statements is FALSE?
There was exactly one paper by an author from Manufacturing area in the April issue.
There were exactly two papers by authors from Manufacturing area in the January issue.
There was exactly one paper by an author from Logistics area in the October issue.
There were exactly two papers by authors from Manufacturing area in the July issue.
According to the information:
Since, the total number of papers written by A, D, G and H was double the total number of papers written by the other authors.
A + D + G + H = 12 papers and B + C + E + F = 6 papers
Therefore, A = D = G = H = 3 papers
According to conditions (1) and (5), B, C, E and F had 1, 2, 2, and 1 papers respectively.
From condition (3), A was an Indian author.
From condition (7), B and G were Indian authors.
From condition (4), A and H were Indian and Japanese authors respectively. Therefore, F was an Indian author and G was from the Automation area.
From condition (9), C and H were from the Manufacturing and Logistics areas respectively. Therefore, E was from Logistics.
The given information can be shown as:
Author | Papers | Month | Country | Area |
A | 3 | October | India | Automation |
B | 1 | April | India | Logistics |
C | 2 | China | Manufacturing | |
D | 3 | July | Japan | Manufacturing |
E | 2 | China | Logistics | |
F | 1 | October | India | Logistics |
G | 3 | India | Automation | |
H | 3 | Japan | Logistics |
From condition (4), A and H had their issues in January, April and July months.
From condition (5), E had issues in April, and July and C had in January, and October months.
From condition (7), G had issues in January, July and October months.
From condition (8), D had issues in January, April and October months.
The final arrangement can be shown as:
Author | Papers | Month | Country | Area |
A | 3 | January, April, July | India | Automation |
B | 1 | April | India | Logistics |
C | 2 | January, October | China | Manufacturing |
D | 3 | January, April, October | Japan | Manufacturing |
E | 2 | April, July | China | Logistics |
F | 1 | October | India | Logistics |
G | 3 | January, July, October | India | Automation |
H | 3 | January, April, July | Japan | Logistics |
Analyse the options one by one:
Option 1: There was exactly one paper by an author from the Manufacturing area in the April issue. Correct.
Option 2: There were exactly two papers by authors from the Manufacturing area in the January issue. Correct.
Option 3: There was exactly one paper by an author from the Logistics area in the October issue. Correct.
Option 4: There were exactly two papers by authors from the Manufacturing area in the July issue. Incorrect. There was no paper by authors from the Manufacturing area in the July issue.
Hence, the fourth option is correct.
The candidates should understand the setup first. They should carefully read the question and understand the logic of the arrangement or the relationship between data sets before moving forward.
If time permits, the candidates should convert the given information into a table, chart, or diagram. This will help them to solve the problem better.
The candidates are also advised not to make assumptions of their own if not explicitly mentioned in the passage given to them.
Some DI sets can be extremely lengthy and time-consuming. In such cases, the candidates are advised to start with the easiest set to save time and attempt as many problems as possible.
The CAT Quantitative Aptitude section is undoubtedly the most time-consuming, highly challenging and oftentimes, the decisive section of the CAT exam. The candidates who appear for the CAT exam should put more effort into solving the CAT quantitative aptitude topics, as it takes a bit more time to understand because the concepts are vast and demand time to learn. Careers360 have compiled 4 topics that the candidates should master before the CAT exam day.
Quantitative Aptitude | |
Topics | Number Systems |
Ratio and Proportion | |
Geometry | |
Arithmetic and Geometric Progressions |
Number Systems is one of the most important concepts of the CAT’s quantitative aptitude section. This section includes questions from a wide range of topics, such as
Indices and surds
Logarithm
Divisibility rules
Squares and square roots
Cube and cube roots
The candidates to ensure to give an adequate amount of time to each sub-concept of number systems because each concept is important as per the examination POV. Number Systems should be the first target for candidates aiming for a high CAT 2025 quantitative aptitude score.
1. Let n be any natural number such that 5n−1 < 3n+1. Then, the least integer value of m that satisfies 3n+1 < 2n+m for each such n, is:
5
6
3
4
For 5n−1 < 3n+1, this is true for n = 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
To find the least value of m to satisfy 3n+1 < 2n+m
If n = 1, m can be 3 or greater.
n = 2, m can be 3 or greater.
n = 3, m can be 4 or greater.
We see that m increases as n increases.
So we need to check the minimum value of m when n reaches its maximum value.
If n = 5, m's least integer value is 5.
Hence, the correct answer is option (1).
2. How many three-digit numbers are greater than 100 and increase by 198 when the three digits are arranged in the reverse order?
80
70
77
88
1. Let the numbers be 100a+10b+c, where a,b, and c represent single digits.
2. When the digits are reversed, the number becomes 100c+10b+a.
3. The condition given is:
(100c+10b+a)−(100a+10b+c)=198
4. Simplifying the equation:
100c+10b+a−100a−10b−c=198⇒99c−99a=198⇒c−a=19899⇒c−a=2
5. a can take the values 1 to 7 . a cannot be zero because the number must be a three-digit number and a cannot be 8 or 9. After all, c would not be a single-digit number.
6. Thus, there are 7 possible values for a.
7. b can be any digit from 0 to 9 because it does not affect the equation.
8. Therefore, the total number of such three-digit numbers is: 7×10=70
Hence, the correct answer is option (2).
Questions from concepts such as geometry and coordinate geometry are widely asked in the CAT examination. Hence, it is advisable for the candidates to learn this topic prior to their CAT quantitative aptitude preparation. While analysing the CAT 2024 question paper, 2 questions were asked from this topic. Following the similar trends, the candidates can expect 1-2 questions to be asked from the geometry concept in the CAT 2025 examination as well.
1. Suppose the length of each side of a regular hexagon ABCDEF is 2 cm. It T is the mid point of CD, then the length of AT, in cm, is:
12
13
14
15
In a regular hexagon, each internal angle is equal to 120∘.
From the isosceles triangle ABC, we know the length of two sides and including angle.
We will be able to find the third side (AC) using the Pythagoras theorem or the sine rule.
Hence, AC=23 cm
Given that, T is the midpoint.
So, CT=1 cm.
From the right-angled △ACT,
AC2+CT2=AT2
AT2=(23)2+(1)2=13
AT=13
Hence, the correct answer is option (2).
2. In a right-angled triangle ABC, the altitude AB is 5 cm, and the base BC is 12 cm. P and Q are two points on BC such that the areas of ΔABP, ΔABQ and ΔABC are in arithmetic progression. If the area of ΔABC is 1.5 times the area of ΔABP, the length of PQ, in cm, is:
2
3
4
1
Area of ∆ABC = 12×5×12 = 30 sq cm
So, Area of ∆ABP = 301.5 = 20 sq cm
And, Area of ∆ABQ = 30+202 = 25 sq cm (Since the areas are in AP)
Now, Area of ∆ABP = 12×5×BP = 20 sq cm
⇒ BP=8 cm
Now, Area of ∆ABQ = 12×5×BQ = 25 sq cm
⇒ BQ=10 cm
So, PQ = BQ−BP=10−8=2 cm
Hence, the correct answer is option (1).
Ratio and Proportion are other topics that the candidates should be well aware of before the CAT 2025 examination. While the number of questions asked from the topic alone might be limited to 1-2, the concepts of ratio and proportion are widely used in other topics such as data interpretation. Hence, having a sound knowledge of ratio and proportion is necessary for scoring good in the CAT’s quantitative ability section.
1. The number of coins collected per week by two coin collectors A and B are in the ratio 3:4. If the total number of coins collected by A in 5 weeks is a multiple of 7, and the total number of coins collected by B in 3 weeks is a multiple of 24, then the minimum possible number of coins collected by A in one week is:
42
52
62
72
Let the total coins collected by A in 5 weeks = 7x
Let the total coins collected by B in 3 weeks = 24y
According to the question,
7x5:24y3=3:4
So, x:y=30:7
For the minimum number of coins collected by A, take x = 30
So, coins collected by A in a week = 75 of 30 = 42
Hence, the correct answer is option (1).
2. In a village, the ratio of number of males to females is 5 : 4. The ratio of number of literate males to literate females is 2 : 3. The ratio of the number of illiterate males to illiterate females is 4 : 3. If 3600 males in the village are literate, then the total number of females in the village is:
43200
42300
43000
42000
Let the number of males to females in the village be 5x and 4x, respectively.
Let the number of literate males to literate females in the village be 2y and 3y, respectively.
Let the number of illiterate males to illiterate females in the village be 4z and 3z, respectively.
So, 2y+4z3y+3z=54
⇒8y+16z=15y+15z
⇒7y=z
According to the question,
⇒2y=3600
∴y=1800
So, the total number of females in the village is:
3y + 3z = 3y + 21y = 24y = 24 × (1800) = 43200
Hence, the correct answer is option (1).
In almost all quantitative aptitude question papers, at least one question from the concept of AP and GP is mandatory, making it an essential topic for preparation. Similar to the ratio and proportion topic, the concepts of AP and GP are widely applied in other topics as well. Preparing well in the AP and GP sections of the CAT exam can give a boost of minimum 6 marks for the candidates, which can very well be decisive.
1. Let an = 46 + 8n and bn = 98 + 4n be two sequences for natural numbers n ≤ 100. Then, the sum of all terms common to both the sequences is:
14900
C15000
14798
14602
For better understanding take n=m in the second series.
Find the terms where an=bm
So, 46+8n=98+4m
⇒ 8n–4m=52
⇒ 2n–m=13
If m=1,n=7
So, the first common term = 98 + 4 = 102
Common difference for this series of common terms = LCM of 8 and 4 = 8
So, the series is like 102,110,118, ……….
Now, find the largest such value of m,
2n–m=13
⇒ m=2n–13
If n=56, we get, m=99.
Last term of common series =98+4(99)=494
Number of common terms = (494–102)8+1=50
∴ Required sum = 50(102+494)2=14900
Hence, the correct answer is option (1).
2. A lab experiment measures the number of organisms at 8 am every day. Starting with 2 organisms on the first day, the number of organisms on any day is equal to 3 more than twice the number on the previous day. If the number of organisms on the nth day exceeds one million, then the lowest possible value of n is:
19
20
23
16
Number of organisms at the start of 1st day = 2
Number of organisms at the start of 2nd day = 22 + 3
Number of organisms at the starting of 3rd day = 2(22 + 3) + 3 = 23 + 2 × 3 + 3
Number of organisms at the starting of 4th day = 2 x 17 + 3 = 37
Following the pattern, we see T(n) = 2n+3(2n−1−1).
To find when the population exceeds 1 million,
So, 2n+3(2n−1−1)>106 which satisfies at n = 19.
So, the population surpasses a million at n = 19.
Hence, the correct answer is option (1).
To score well in the questions from the quantitative aptitude section, the candidates should be strong with their basics. This includes studying all the important concepts, theorems and equations related to the corresponding topics.
Usually, the CAT question papers are observed to be arithmetic-dominated. Hence, prioritising this section can be extremely helpful for the candidates to score better in the exam.
One efficient method to study the numerical questions is to divide the questions on the basis of difficulty, start with the easier ones and progress forward. For the questions that the candidates face difficulty with, they must note them down and put more time into learning those concepts. Eventually, the candidates can master the topics.
The candidates should also solve as many CAT sample papers and CAT mock tests as possible under the quantitative aptitude section to enhance their performance.
The candidates should also maintain a formula sheet and revise it regularly to keep key concepts fresh in their minds.
To solve the problems within the given time, the candidates should practice concepts such as mental maths and Vedic maths.
To help the candidates stay focused on their CAT 2025 preparation and give them the necessary abundant practice, Careers360 have designed a set of ebooks. These CAT preparation materials has been created to help the candidates make the most out of their CAT 2025 exam preparation. The links to download the ebooks are provided in the list below.
eBook Title | Download Links |
3000+ Most Important Words - Vocabulary Builder | |
500+ Most Important Idioms and Phrases | |
300+ Most Important Phrasal Verbs | |
Permutation & Combination - Video Lectures and Practice Questions | |
Mastering DILR Questions with Expert Solutions |
CAT 2025 will be a two-hour computer-based test, divided into three sections: VARC, DILR, and QA. Each section lasts 40 minutes, with extra time for PwD candidates. The exam will have around 68 questions and will be conducted in three slots on the same day.
Key topics include Reading Comprehension, Para Summary, and Para Completion in VARC; Graphs, Routes & Networks, and Logical Reasoning in DILR; and Number Systems, Geometry, Ratio & Proportion, and Progressions in QA.
Focus first on high-weightage topics like Reading Comprehension and Graphs. Build strong foundations in Quantitative topics early and practice frequently with past papers and mock tests to build speed and accuracy.
Yes. You’ll get +3 for each correct answer, and -1 for incorrect MCQs. Non-MCQs (TITA questions) have no negative marking, so it’s worth attempting them all.
Dear Aspirant
Your rank at eleven thousand eight hundred eighty seven under the OBC reservation has a strong chance for admission to the Computer Science Engineering (CSE) program at one of the three CUSAT campuses The exact seat depends on opening and closing ranks for CSE in each campus and the round of counselling
CUSAT campuses offering BTech CSE
• School of Engineering Thrikkakkara – flagship campus in Kochi
• CUCEK Kuttanad – second campus in Alappuzha district
• Lakeside campus does not offer CSE so only two campuses are relevant
Previous closing ranks under OBC quota for CSE
• Thrikkakkara campus closed near rank one thousand
• CUCEK Kuttanad closed around six thousand two hundred in 2024
Your likelihood with rank 11887
• Thrikkakkara campus is unlikely as CSE closes much lower than your rank
• CUCEK has potential since closing ranks in recent years have extended into the high six thousands
• Seats may remain open in later rounds so you may gain admission at CUCEK
Other CSE seat possibilities under OBC
• School of Engineering might open seats in spot or mop up rounds if higher ranked students do not confirm
• CUCEK will likely accept OBC candidates up to rank one two thousand to thirteen thousand
• Keep an eye on real time counselling as closing ranks may shift downward with seat cancellations
Alternative branches and campuses
If CSE is not available at CUCEK you may consider similar branches like Electronics and Communication Engineering Information Technology Mechanical Engineering and Civil Engineering closing beyond twelve thousand under OBC
You may also add interdisciplinary programs or lateral entry courses available in Lakeside or Thrikkakkara depending on available seats
Counselling strategy recommendations
• Register and fill choices on the CUSAT admissions portal in all counselling rounds
• Place CUCEK CSE as a high preference followed by ECE or IT at Thrikkakkara or CUCEK
• Monitor round wise closing ranks through the portal or official communications
• Participate in mop up and spot rounds where seats are more likely available near your rank
Key considerations
• Cutoffs decrease between rounds allowing more opportunities in later phases
• OBC candidates compete within their category reducing competition compared to open rankings
• CUCEK is your best target campus for CSE at your rank under OBC
• You must have all documents ready like previous marksheet category certificate and CUSAT admit card for verification
Let me know if you would like a suggested list of choices tailored to your academic interest or want help tracking counselling round data
Hi aspirant,
You can refer to the link attached above for more information on the same.
All the best!
Hi aspirant,
You can refer to the link given above for more information on the same.
All the best!
Hello dear,
The CAT exam requires a significant amount of time for preparation, including brushing up on basic concepts and practicing advanced problem-solving. Starting too early can feel overwhelming and may not be sustainable with other academic commitments.
The CAT exam requires a level of focus and maturity that is not always present in class 9. Starting preparation at this stage can be challenging to maintain. At class 9, you're primarily focused on learning foundational concepts. So you just need to boost your fundamentals by practicing more and more at class 9 because the Quantitative Aptitude section of CAT syllabus includes all the topics of Mathematics from Class 9 to 10 such as Arithmetic, Geometry, Algebra, Trigonometry and Mensuration.
Start Preparation 12 Months Prior:
Identify Weak Sections:
I hope you got your answer, That's all Thank you.
IIFT CAT Cutoff 2024
IIFT Delhi
General: 95–98 percentile
OBC: 90+
SC: 85–95
ST/PwD: 75–93
IIFT Kolkata
General: 85–95 percentile
OBC/SC/ST: 50–95 (varies)
Note: Final selection also includes WAT, GD, PI, academics, and work experience.
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