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TS ICET 2025 Analytical Ability Sample Questions: The TS ICET 2025 exam, scheduled for June 8 and 9, is one of the key MBA entrance tests in Telangana. Among the three sections, Analytical Ability carries a significant 75-mark weightage. This guide brings you sample questions, expert strategies, preparation tips, and a complete breakdown to help you ace this crucial part of the exam.
The TS ICET examination is scheduled to take place on the 8th and 9th of June, 2025. The examination will be conducted across four sessions, sessions 1 and 2 on June 9, followed by sessions 3 and 4 on 10th June. Both sessions 1 and 3 will be forenoon sessions and will be conducted from 10.00 AM to 12.30 PM, while sessions 2 and 4 will be afternoon sessions conducted from 2.30 PM to 5 PM. The exam will be conducted for a duration of 2.5 hours. Section A of the TS ICET question paper would consist of the analytical ability section. Questions worth 75 marks would be asked from this section, which accounts for 37.5% of the total weightage. Hence, this section is very vital and decisive for the candidates who are planning to secure a good TS ICET score. In this article of Careers360, we will discuss in detail the TS ICET analytical ability sample questions, types of questions asked in the section and various tips and tricks using which the candidates can improve their score in the TS ICET examination.
The TS ICET examination will follow the same pattern as in the previous years. The candidates can expect 200 questions in the question paper, which is divided into 3 sections: Analytical ability, Mathematical ability and Communication ability. The number of questions in each section is 75, 75 and 50, respectively. The detailed examination pattern of the TS ICET examination is given below.
Section | Topic-wise Distribution | No. of Questions |
A. Analytical Ability (Total: 75 Questions) | Data Sufficiency | 20 |
Problem Solving | 55 | |
B. Mathematical Ability (Total: 75 Questions) | Arithmetical Ability | 35 |
Algebraic and Geometric Ability | 30 | |
Statistical Ability | 10 | |
C. Communication Ability (Total: 50 Questions) | Meanings (sentences with dashes) | 5 |
Synonyms and Antonyms | 5 | |
Verb (Tense & Voice) | 5 | |
Phrasal Verbs & Idioms | 5 | |
Articles & Prepositions | 5 | |
Computer Terminology | 5 | |
Business Terminology | 5 |
The first section of the TS ICET 2025 question paper will be the analytical ability section. Performing well in the first section can give the candidates motivation and confidence to attempt the other sections. Thoroughly reading the questions is important to perform well in the TS ICET’s analytical section. This is because the data sufficiency questions may be slightly confusing and require more time to understand. Hence, practice through solving TS ICET analytical ability sample questions is essential for the candidates. The data sufficiency section of the TS ICET question paper would require the candidate to understand the set of statements that are necessary for concluding a statement. This can only be achieved through proper TS ICET preparation using the TS ICET analytical ability model questions. The problem-solving section will consist of questions from various logical reasoning topics such as coding, decoding, series completion, blood relation and so on. Various TS ICET analytical ability practice questions are given below.
Section A – Analytical Ability | |
1. Data Sufficiency | 20 |
2. Problem-Solving | 55 |
The first 20 questions of the TS ICET 2025 question paper will be the data sufficiency section. In this section, one conclusion will be given, followed by two statements, A and B. The candidates should identify how the statements are responsible for influencing the conclusion. There are four possible answers. Statement one alone is sufficient for concluding, statement two alone is sufficient for concluding, both statements A and B are necessary for concluding or finally, neither A nor B is sufficient for concluding. These 20 questions might be tricky because the candidates should go through all the possible choices to conclude. But the challenges can be tackled through proper TS ICET analytical ability sample question practice. Some of the selected solved TS ICET analytical ability model questions under the data sufficiency section is listed below:
Note:
In the questions below, a question is followed by data in the form of two statements labelled as (I) and (II). You must decide whether the data given in the statements are sufficient to answer the questions. Using the data, make an appropriate choice from (1) to (4) as per the following guidelines:
(a) Mark choice (1) if the statement (I) alone is sufficient to answer the question.
(b) Mark choice (2) if the statement (II) alone is sufficient to answer the question.
(c) Mark choice (3) if both the statements (I) and (II) are sufficient to answer the question but neither statement alone is sufficient.
(d) Mark choice (4) if both the statements (I) and (II) together are not sufficient to answer the question and additional data are required.
Question:
Find the two-digit number x.
Options:
1
2
3
4
Statements:
(I) The difference between the number x and the one obtained by reversing it is 27.
(II) The number is greater than 5.
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Explanation:
Statement (I):
Let the two-digit number be x = 10a + b, where a is the tens digit and b is the ones digit. When the number is reversed, it becomes 10b + a.
According to the statement, the difference is 27, so:
| (10a + b) - (10b + a) | = 27
Simplifying the equation:
| 9a - 9b | = 27
Dividing by 9:
| a - b | = 3
This gives us two possibilities:
a - b = 3 or b - a = 3
Statement (II):
The number is greater than 5. This just tells us the number is positive and is a two-digit number.
Now, using both statements, we check possible values of a and b that satisfy | a - b | = 3 and a, b are digits (from 0 to 9).
The possibilities are:
a = 6, b = 3 → Number = 63
a = 7, b = 4 → Number = 74
a = 8, b = 5 → Number = 85
a = 9, b = 6 → Number = 96
These satisfy the condition of the difference being 27. Therefore, 63 is the solution.
Correct Answer:
Option 1
Question:
Is the positive integer x divisible by 10?
Options:
1
2
3
4
Statements:
(I) x is the sum of five consecutive positive integers.
(II) x is divisible by 4.
Explanation:
Statement (I):
The sum of five consecutive integers is given by x = n + (n + 1) + (n + 2) + (n + 3) + (n + 4), which simplifies to x = 5n + 10.
For x to be divisible by 10, 5n + 10 must be divisible by 10.
5n + 10 = 10(n + 1), which is clearly divisible by 10 for any integer n.
Hence, Statement (I) alone is sufficient to conclude that x is divisible by 10.
Statement (II):
x is divisible by 4, but this does not give us information on whether it is divisible by 10. This statement alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
Thus, Statement (I) alone is sufficient to answer the question.
Correct Answer:
Option 1: 1
Question:
Among four friends P, Q, R, S, who is the tallest?
Options:
1
2
3
4
Statements:
(I) Q is taller than P.
(II) R is shorter than Q, but taller than S.
Explanation:
Statement (I):
Q is taller than P, but this information alone does not tell us the height relationship between R and S, so we cannot determine who is the tallest from this statement alone.
Statement (II):
R is shorter than Q, but taller than S. This gives us some information, but we still do not know how P compares to Q or R, and therefore, cannot definitively answer the question.
Combining both statements:
From Statement (I), we know Q is taller than P, and from Statement (II), we know R is taller than S but shorter than Q. This gives us a ranking of Q > R > S. Since P is not directly compared with R or S, Q is clearly the tallest.
Thus, combining the two statements is sufficient to determine that Q is the tallest.
Correct Answer:
Option 1: 1
Question:
What is the value of x?
Options:
1
2
3
4
Statements:
(I) x + y = 24.
(II) x² + y² = 296.
Explanation:
Statement (I):
The equation x + y = 24 gives us a relationship between x and y, but it does not provide enough information to determine the value of x without further details about y.
Statement (II):
The equation x² + y² = 296 provides a different relationship between x and y. However, this alone is not sufficient to determine x, as there are multiple possible values for x and y that satisfy this equation.
Combining both statements:
From Statement (I), we know x + y = 24. By substituting y = 24 - x into Statement (II), we get:
x² + (24 - x)² = 296
Expanding the equation:
x² + (576 - 48x + x²) = 296
2x² - 48x + 576 = 296
Simplifying:
2x² - 48x + 280 = 0
Dividing by 2:
x² - 24x + 140 = 0
Solving the quadratic equation:
x = 14 or x = 10
Therefore, we have two possible values for x. However, the provided options suggest there is only one possible answer
Thus, Option 4: 4 is the correct answer.
Question:
What is the angle subtended by the sector at the centre of the circle?
Options:
1
2
3
4
Statements:
(I) Perimeter of the sector is 16 cm.
(II) Arc length of the sector is 10 cm.
Explanation:
Statement (I):
The perimeter of the sector is given by Perimeter = 2r + l, where r is the radius and l is the arc length.
From the perimeter, we can find r and l, and use the formula for the angle subtended by the sector.
Statement (II):
The arc length l of the sector is related to the radius and the angle θ by the formula l = rθ. Using the arc length, we can calculate θ directly.
Combining both statements:
Using both statements, we can find the value of the angle θ by relating the arc length to the radius and solving for θ. Therefore, both statements together are sufficient to determine the angle.
Correct Answer:
Option 3: 3
Question:
What is the median of the integers in set S consisting of six integers?
Options:
1
2
3
4
Statements:
(I) Range of the set is 40.
(II) Arithmetic mean of the integers in S is 15.
Explanation:
Statement (I):
The range of a set is the difference between the largest and smallest numbers.
The range is 40, so we know that the difference between the maximum and minimum values in the set is 40. However, this alone doesn't help us determine the exact value of the median.
Statement (II):
The arithmetic mean is the sum of all the integers in the set divided by the number of integers. Given that the mean is 15, this implies that the sum of the integers is 6 × 15 = 90.
Combining both statements:
Since the set consists of six integers and the mean is given as 15, we know the sum of the numbers. The range tells us the difference between the highest and lowest integers. However, because there are two middle numbers (since there is an even number of integers), neither of these two statements alone, or together, provides enough information to determine the median. Additional information is required to determine the median.
Correct Answer:
Option 4: 4
Question:
What is the ratio of the areas of a circle and a square?
Options:
1
2
3
4
Statements:
(I) The radius of the circle is 4 cm.
(II) The circle circumscribes the square.
Explanation:
Statement (I):
The radius of the circle is given as 4 cm, but this alone is not sufficient to determine the ratio of the areas of the circle and square. The relationship between the square and circle needs to be defined further.
Statement (II):
The fact that the circle circumscribes the square means that the circle passes through all four vertices of the square. The diagonal of the square is equal to the diameter of the circle. We can now calculate the area of both the square and the circle.
Combining both statements:
From Statement (I), the radius of the circle is 4 cm, so the area of the circle is:
Area of circle = πr² = π(4)² = 16π cm².
From Statement (II), the diagonal of the square is equal to the diameter of the circle, which is 8 cm. Using the relation for the diagonal of a square (diagonal = √2 × side), we can find the side of the square:
Side of the square = 8 / √2 = 8√2 / 2 = 4√2 cm.
The area of the square is:
Area of square = (side)² = (4√2)² = 32 cm².
Now, the ratio of the area of the circle to the area of the square is:
Ratio = (Area of circle) / (Area of square) = 16π / 32 = π / 2 ≈ 1.57.
Thus, the ratio is approximately 3.
Correct Answer:
Option 3: 3
Question:
What is the rate of simple interest?
Options:
1
2
3
4
Statements:
(I) Principal is Rs. 1000.
(II) Amount in 3 years is Rs. 1195.
Explanation:
Statement (I):
The principal amount is given as Rs. 1000. This information is useful, but we also need to know the interest rate or the total amount at the end of the period to calculate the rate of interest.
Statement (II):
The total amount after 3 years is given as Rs. 1195. We can use this information to find the simple interest (SI) and then calculate the rate.
Using both statements together:
The formula for Simple Interest is:
SI = P × R × T / 100,
where P is the principal, R is the rate of interest, and T is the time in years.
The total amount (A) is given by:
A = P + SI,
where A is the total amount, and P is the principal.
From Statement (I), P = 1000 and from Statement (II), A = 1195 after 3 years.
So, the simple interest for 3 years is:
SI = 1195 - 1000 = 195.
Now, using the formula for SI:
195 = 1000 × R × 3 / 100
Simplifying this:
195 = 3000R / 100
195 × 100 = 3000R
19500 = 3000R
R = 19500 / 3000 = 6.5
Thus, the rate of interest is 6.5%.
Correct Answer:
Option 3: 3
Understanding the statements and conclusion is the key to solving the various types of data sufficiency questions in the TS ICET examination. The data sufficiency problems are the ones which may confuse the candidates a lot. Jumping to conclusions without going through all the statements and conclusions may result in wrong responses. Along with solving the TS ICET analytical ability sample questions, the candidates are also advised to go through the following tips and tricks to score better in the examination.
The candidates should understand the questions clearly. Read the question carefully to understand exactly what is being asked. Sometimes, the wording can be tricky, and understanding the core of the question is crucial. Candidates should understand if the questions require solving to find a single value or performing a comparison.
The candidates should go through each statement carefully and compare it with the solution to see if they can alone conclude. Candidates should also not neglect the possibility of a statement giving a partial answer. They must evaluate each statement independently so that they do not mix them and result in confusion.
In some cases, extra information can be provided that is not required to solve the problem. This is done to confuse the candidates. Focus only on the information that answers the question.
As some of the questions may also cover both logical reasoning and various quantitative aptitude concepts, the candidates should also be thorough with these concepts.
Using the elimination strategy is also helpful for the candidates. If both statements provide contradictory information, the answer is likely that both are insufficient.
The candidate should also look for hidden clues given in the statements or conclusions
55 questions are asked from the problem-solving topic of the analytical ability section. The candidates who find the data sufficiency problems difficult can focus more on the problem-solving concepts to enhance their TS ICT analytical ability’s problem-solving section to gain a good TS ICET. Some of the TS ICET analytical ability sample questions are provided below for the reference of the candidates. Apart from practising the TS ICET analytical ability model questions, the candidates should also go through the TS ICET mock tests and TS ICET sample papers to enhance the candidate’s TS ICET scores.
Question:
257 : G :: 879 : ?
Options:
J
K
L
M
Answer:
Correct Option: 3
Solution:
The sum of the digits of 257 is 2 + 5 + 7 = 14.
The letter G is the 7th letter in the alphabet.
Dividing 14 by 2 gives 7, which corresponds to the position of G.
Now, applying this to 879:
The sum of the digits of 879 is 8 + 7 + 9 = 24.
Dividing 24 by 2 gives 12, which corresponds to the letter L (the 12th letter of the alphabet).
Hence, the correct answer is Option 3: L.
Identity the odd one out in the questions given below
Crowd, Union, Swarm, Team, Flock, Throng
Options:
Crowd
Flock
Team
Swarm
Correct Option: 3
Solution:
The words "Swarm," "Flock," "Crowd," "Throng," and "Union" all refer to a group or collection of individuals. However, "Team" specifically refers to a group working together for a common goal, which makes it the odd one out.
Hence, the correct answer is Option 3: Team.
Sequence: 71, 73, 79, 83, 87, 89, 97
Options:
73
83
87
97
Correct Option: 3
Solution: Upon reviewing the sequence:
71, 73, 79, 83, 89, and 97 are all prime numbers.
However, 87 is not a prime number (it is divisible by 3).
Therefore, 87 is the odd one out, as it is the only non-prime number in the sequence.
Hence, the correct answer is Option 3: 87.
Clear is related to Open in the same way as Confidential is related to ___.
Clean
Free
Direct
Secret
Correct Option: 4
Given:
Clear is related to Open.
Confidential is related to ___.
Like in, Clear is related to Open – the synonym of clear is open.
Similarly, the synonym of confidential is secret, meaning something that is not to be shown or told to others.
So, only the fourth option establishes the same relationship with confidential as the given pair. Hence, the fourth option is correct.
Directions: A series is given with one term missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.
ABCD, HGLO, OLUZ, VQDK, ?
RTQV
CYQR
CMVQ
CVMV
Correct Option: 4
Given:
ABCD, HGLO, OLUZ, VQDK, ?
Add 7, 5, 9, and 11 to the place values of the first, second, third, and fourth letters of the previous terms to get the next term in the series.
First letter→A + 7 = H; H + 7 = O; O + 7 = V; V + 7 = C
Second letter→B + 5 = G; G + 5 = L; L + 5 = Q; Q + 5 = V
Third letter→C + 9 = L; L + 9 = U; U + 9 = D; D + 9 = M
Fourth letter→D + 11 = O; O + 11 = Z; Z + 11 = K; K + 11 = V
So, CVMV is the missing term of the series. Hence, the fourth option is correct.
Directions: In a certain code language, CRUST is written as 201921183 and BLAME is written as 5131122. How will PLASTIC be written in that language?.
18204165138
73110209325
71642578102
39201911216
Correct Option: 4
Given:
CRUST is written as 201921183
BLAME is written as 5131122
Position values of letters is arranged in the reverse order to get the code
Position values of letters of CRUST; C → 3; R → 18; S → 19; T → 20
On reversing the numbers the code will be ⇒ 201921183
Position values of letters of BLAME; B → 2; L → 12; A → 1; M → 13; E → 5
On reversing the numbers the code will be ⇒ 5131122
Likewise, position values of the letters of PLASTIC are: P → 16; L → 12; A → 1; S → 19; T → 20; I → 9; C → 3
On reversing the numbers the code will be ⇒ 39201911216
Thus, PLASTIC is coded as 39201911216. Hence, the fourth option is correct.
Directions: Select the option that is related to the fifth letter cluster in the same way as the second letter cluster is related to the first letter cluster and the fourth letter cluster is related to the third letter cluster.
LAMB : DPEQ :: MOTH : JWSR :: NERD : ?
FVJS
FUJS
FVIS
FUIS
Correct Option: 4
Given:
LAMB : DPEQ :: MOTH : JWSR :: NERD : ?
Like, LAMB→L + 5 = Q; A + 4 = E; M + 3 = P; B + 2 = D→QEPD
Now, reverse the order of the letters obtained, we get→DPEQ
So, LAMB is related to DPEQ.
MOTH→M + 5 = R; O + 4 = S; T + 3 = W; H + 2 = J→RSWJ
Now, reverse the order of the letters obtained, we get→JWSR
So, MOTH is related to JWSR.
Similarly, for NERD→N + 5 = S; E + 4 = I; R + 3 = U; D + 2 = F→SIUF
Now, reverse the order of the letters obtained, we get→FUIS
So, NERD is related to FUIS. Hence, the fourth option is correct.
Directions: Three of the following letter-clusters are alike in some manner and hence form a group. Which letter-cluster does not belong to that group?
WDLF
YBXR
PKSM
IRMT
Correct Option: 4
Given:
Option 1: WDLF : 23, 4, 12, 6;
Option 2: YBXR : 25, 2, 24, 18;
Option 3: PKSM : 16, 11, 19, 13;
Option 4: IRMT : 9, 18, 13, 20;
In all the options First letter and Second letter are opposite pair of alphabet series, but in first three option, the difference of third letter and fourth letter is 6, but in option 4 the difference is 7;
Hence, the fourth option is correct.
Directions: If A × B means that A is the father of B, A + B means that A is the mother of B, A ÷ B means that A is the brother of B then which of the following expression shows that Q is the son of P?
Q + P × R
P + Q × R
R × Q + P
P + Q ÷ R
Correct Option: 2
Given:
A × B means that A is the father of B; A + B means that A is the mother of B; A ÷ B means that A is the brother of B.
First option: Q + P × R
→ Q is the mother of P and P is the father of R. So, Q is not the son of P.
Second option: P + Q × R
→ P is the mother of Q and Q is the father of R. So, Q is the son of P.
Third option: R × Q + P
→ R is the father of Q and Q is the mother of R. So, Q is not the son of P.
Fourth option: P + Q ÷ R.
→ P is the mother of Q and Q is the brother of R.
Hence, the second option is correct.
The problem-solving section of the TS ICET exam consists of questions from a wide range of topics, such as series completion, coding and decoding, blood relation, distance and direction and so on. According to the official TS ICET exam pattern, there is no exact division of questions across the subtopics of logical reasoning. Still, it is beneficial for the candidates to follow expert strategies for TS ICET 2025 preparation of the analytical ability section.
Practice all the different types of questions. The questions from the problem-solving section of the TS ICET exam can come from a wide range of topics, as mentioned above. The candidates should also take TS ICET analytical ability sample questions from various domains to have an understanding of the question types.
Regular practice is necessary for the candidates, irrespective of their skills in the analytical ability section of the TS ICET examination. For the candidates with beginner and intermediate level proficiency in the logical reasoning section of the TS ICET examination, the candidates should practice often using various TS ICET analytical ability sample questions. In case the candidates are proficient in the section, they must revise regularly using the TS ICET analytical ability sample questions.
Time management is an important skill as far as any management entrance examination is concerned. Analytical Ability questions can be time-consuming. Practising solving questions within a limited time can help the candidates to improve their speed and accuracy. Taking part in the TS ICET mock tests in a timed environment can be helpful for the candidates.
One of the major mistakes made by the candidates while preparing for the TS ICET exam is prioritising speed over accuracy. While speed is necessary, focusing on accuracy is more important.
If the candidate is stuck on a question and it’s taking too long, move on to the next one. However, if they feel confident about a probable answer, try smart guessing based on elimination techniques. Since there is no negative marking in the TS ICET examination, the candidates can attempt all the questions without worrying about negative marking.
Now that the candidates have almost 2 months in hand for the TS ICET 2025 preparation, they can follow the timetable designed below by Careers360 for completing the entire TS ICET 2025 syllabus and equipping themselves for the TS ICET exam day.
Week | Topics |
Week 1 | - Symbol Interpretation - Seating Arrangements - Arrivals and Departures - Blood Relationships |
Week 2 | - Calendars and Clocks - Date, Time, and Arrangement Problems - Passage - Venn Diagram |
Week 3 | - Pie Chart - Bar Diagram - Tables and Graphs - Data Analysis - Coding and Decoding |
Week 4 | - Missing Number in Sequence - Problem Solving - Numbers and Alphabets - Sequences and Series |
Week 5 | - Data Sufficiency - Binomial Theorem - Matrices - Notions of Limit and Derivative |
Week 6 | - Plane Geometry: Lines, Triangles, Quadrilaterals, Circles - Coordinate Geometry: Distance between points |
Week 7 | - Frequency Distribution - Mean, Median, and Mode - Standard Deviation - Correlation - Probability |
Week 8 | - Areas and Volume - Mensuration - Modular Arithmetic - Algebraic and Geometrical Ability Statements |
Now that the candidates have a good enough time left for the TS ICET 2025 exam, it is the right time to strengthen their preparation using the best TS ICET 2025 books. Given below is a set of the best books arranged section-wise for bringing out the best of the candidate’s last-minute TS ICET preparation.
Section | Book Title | Authors/Publishers |
Analytical Ability | Verbal and Non-Verbal Reasoning | RS Aggarwal |
Reasoning Book for Competitive Examinations | Pearson | |
Logical Reasoning and Data Interpretation | Nishit Sinha | |
Analytical Reasoning | MK Pandey | |
Multi-Dimensional Reasoning | Mishra & Kumar Dr Lal | |
Mathematical Ability | Quantitative Aptitude Quantum CAT Common Admission Tests | Sarvesh K. Verma |
Quantitative Aptitude for Competitive Exams | RS Aggarwal | |
Mathematics Class 11th and 12th | RD Sharma | |
Vedic Mathematics | Dr. Aditi Singhal | |
How to Prepare for Quantitative Aptitude for CAT | Arun Sharma | |
Communication Ability | Word Power Made Easy | Norman Lewis |
Proficiency in Reading Comprehension | Ajay Singh | |
Grammar Error Spot | A. Uphadhaya | |
High School English Grammar | Wren and Martin | |
Objective General English | SP Bakshi |
The TS ICET 2025 exam will be held on June 8th and 9th, 2025, with sessions from 10:00 AM to 12:30 PM and 2:30 PM to 5:00 PM. Make sure to check the official website for any updates or changes to the schedule.
TS ICET 2025 consists of 200 questions: Analytical Ability (75 questions), Mathematical Ability (75 questions), and Communication Ability (50 questions). The exam is designed to assess candidates’ aptitude in various management-related subjects.
The TS ICET Analytical Ability section includes Data Sufficiency (20 questions) and Problem Solving (55 questions), covering topics like series completion and blood relations. Mastery of these topics is crucial for scoring well in this section.
For TS ICET Data Sufficiency, understand each statement and conclusion, practice various question types, and focus on logical reasoning. Mock tests help improve time management and boost confidence for the exam.
TS ICET Analytical Ability: RS Aggarwal, MK Pandey.
TS ICET Mathematical Ability: Sarvesh K. Verma, RS Aggarwal.
TS ICET Communication Ability: Norman Lewis, SP Bakshi.
These books are highly recommended by experts and can help you enhance your preparation effectively.
Hi Anjum!
Thanks for your question. Based on your TS ICET 2025 rank of 6000 and the fact that you're from the BC-B girl category, you do have a fair chance to get a seat in VNR Vignana Jyothi Institute of Engineering and Technology (VNR VJIET) for MCA.
In previous years, BCB girl candidates with ranks around 5000–7000 have been able to secure seats in good colleges like VNR, especially in later counselling phases or spot rounds. VNR is one of the better colleges in Telangana for MCA, so the cutoff can vary slightly based on demand that year. Since you're from a reserved category and female, you get the benefit of category and gender-based reservation which improves your chances.
I would strongly suggest participating in Phase 2 of counselling, keeping VNR as a top choice, and also adding a few backup colleges just in case. You can also keep an eye out for spot admissions where vacancies are filled quickly.
Wishing you all the best with your MCA admission,
With a 9007 TS ICET 2025 rank and SC category, you have a good chance to get into reputed MBA/MCA colleges in Telangana. Colleges like CMR, Malla Reddy, Badruka, and Telangana University are within reach. Top colleges like CBIT or JNTU-H may be harder but possible in later rounds. Prioritize your web options wisely, attend all counselling rounds, and keep your documents ready for verification.
Hello ma'am,
Thanks for reaching out!
Yes ,with your TS ICET rank of 3168 in the BC-B female category you have a good chance of getting an MCA seat at CBIT. since their cut-offs have gone upto 6,000 above in recent years. However,seat allotment may vary based on seat availability, number of applicants and reservation policy .so,It's wise to fill in plenty of options and attend councelling as per the schedule to secure the best possible seat.
Explore complete details about your chosed college:
https://www.careers360.com/colleges/chaitanya-bharathi-institute-of-technology-hyderabad
Dear Candidate,
Thankyou for reaching out!
With 5655 rank in TS ICET under BC-B category
You have a decent chance for MCA at CBIT,but it's not guaranteed. MCA seats at CBIT are limited and cut-offs vary each year. In previous years the cutoff have been around 4,000 - 6,500. but,various factors like competition,seat availability, reservation affect chances each year .
Attend counsellings,keep backup options,stay flexible with choices and also consider management quota if you strongly prefer CBIT.
Dear Candidate ,
- Visit the official portal .
-Click on the " Download Response Sheet " link under the Application tab / Answer key section .
- Log in using - hall ticket number , registration number , date of birth .
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A career as Marketing Director is also known as a marketing expert who is responsible for the overall marketing aspect of the company. He or she oversees plans and develops the company's budget. The marketing Director collaborates with the business team to plan and develop the marketing and branding strategies for the company's products or services.
A Business Development Executive identifies and pursues new business opportunities to drive company growth. They generate leads, build client relationships, develop sales strategies, and analyse market trends. Collaborating with internal teams, they aim to meet sales targets. With experience, they can advance to managerial roles, playing a key role in expanding the company’s market presence and revenue.
Content Marketing Specialists are also known as Content Specialists. They are responsible for crafting content, editing and developing it to meet the requirements of digital marketing campaigns. To ensure that the material created is consistent with the overall aims of a digital marketing campaign, content marketing specialists work closely with SEO and digital marketing professionals.
A Sales Manager leads a sales team to meet targets, formulates strategies, analyses performance, and monitors market trends. They typically hold a degree in management or related fields, with an MBA offering added value. The role often demands over 40 hours a week. Strong leadership, planning, and analytical skills are essential for success in this career.
A marketing manager is a person who oversees a company or product marketing. He or she can be in charge of multiple programmes or goods or can be in charge of one product. He or she is enthusiastic, organised, and very diligent in meeting financial constraints. He or she works with other team members to produce advertising campaigns and decides if a new product or service is marketable.
A Marketing manager plans and executes marketing initiatives to create demand for goods and services and increase consumer awareness of them. A marketing manager prevents unauthorised statements and informs the public that the business is doing everything to investigate and fix the line of products. Students can pursue an MBA in Marketing Management courses to become marketing managers.
An SEO Analyst is a web professional who is proficient in the implementation of SEO strategies to target more keywords to improve the reach of the content on search engines. He or she provides support to acquire the goals and success of the client’s campaigns.
Digital marketing is growing, diverse, and is covering a wide variety of career paths. Each job function aids in the development of effective digital marketing strategies and techniques. The aims and objectives of the individuals who opt for a career as a digital marketing executive are similar to those of a marketing professional: to build brand awareness, promote company services or products, and increase conversions. Individuals who opt for a career as Digital Marketing Executives, unlike traditional marketing companies, communicate effectively through suitable technology platforms.
Individuals who opt for a career as a business analyst look at how a company operates. He or she conducts research and analyses data to improve his or her knowledge about the company. This is required so that an individual can suggest the company strategies for improving their operations and processes.
In a business analyst job role a lot of analysis is done, things are learned from past mistakes and the successful strategies are enhanced further. A business analyst goes through real-world data in order to provide the most feasible solutions to an organisation. Students can pursue Business Analytics to become Business Analysts.
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