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CAT 2025 Practice Test Series 14 - QA, LRDI & VARC | Day 56
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CAT Admit Card Date:05 Nov' 25 - 30 Nov' 25
CAT 2025 Practice Test Series 14 – Day 56 offers a comprehensive practice set for all three sections of the CAT exam: Quantitative Aptitude (QA), Logical Reasoning & Data Interpretation (LRDI), and Verbal Ability & Reading Comprehension (VARC). This series closely imitates the actual CAT test pattern and difficulty level, helping candidates develop CAT 2025 exam-day endurance, enhance time management skills, and identify strengths and weaknesses. Utilise this complete set and review the step-by-step solutions to optimise as per the CAT preparation strategy 2025 effectively.
CAT 2025 Practice Test: Best Free Mock Test For CAT
This free sectional mock test for CAT consists of subject and topic-specific questions and answers. Candidates should download the best free mock test for the CAT and finish the Practice Test Series from all three subjects to get the best idea of what the requirements are for the CAT exam 2025. Based on the 55 days of lessons, this CAT Practice Test includes comprehensive solutions. You can ace the exam in 2025 by using this free sectional mock test for the CAT. These practice sets are designed as per the CAT previous year question papers:
This CAT practice set consists of three Sections:
CAT mock test Part- A consists of 8 questions.
CAT mock test Part- B consists of 8 questions.
CAT mock test Part- C consists of 8 questions.
CAT Test Series Part- A: Quantitative Aptitude
Part-A of the CAT Test Series focuses on Quantitative Aptitude, featuring a variety of questions that assess mathematical skills, problem-solving abilities, and numerical reasoning. This section is essential for mastering key concepts and improving overall performance in the CAT exam.
Q1. If the mean and mode of distribution are 7 and 9 respectively, then the median is?
7
8.33
7.66
None of the above
CAT 2025: VARC, DILR, and Quant MCQs & Weightages
Comprehensive CAT prep guide with focused practice on Verbal Ability, Data Interpretation & Logical Reasoning, and Quantitative Aptitude.
Download NowAns: [3]
As we know
2 Mean + Mode = 3 Median
So, 2 x 7 + 9 = 3 x Median
Median = 23/3 = 7.66.
Q2. The quartile deviation of 2, 7, 11, 14, 12, 13, 9 is
2
13
3
6.5
Ans: [3]
Write the data in ascending order 2, 7, 9, 11, 12, 13, 14
Q1= 7
Q2= 11
Q3= 13
Quartile deviation = (Q3 – Q1)/2 = (13- 7)/2 = 3.
Q3. The median of the first 16 prime numbers is
17
23
19
21
Ans: [4]
Median of 1st 16 terms will be the average of the 8th and 9th terms.
So, 8th prime number = 19
And 9th prime number = 23
So median = (19+ 23)/2 = 21
Q4. The geometric mean of √8, √27, 2,and √3 is
√6
6
36
9
Ans: [1]
GM = [√8 x 27 x 2 x √3]1/4
GM = [36]1/4
GM = √6
Q5. Express the following expression in the form of a + bi
i13+ i23
Options:
0
i
-i
-1
Ans: [1]
i = -1; i2 = -1; i3 = -i; i4 = 1
i13 = i12+1 = i
i23 = i20+3 = i3 = -i
So, i13+ i23 = i – i = 0.
Q6. The least value for n, in the expression {(1 - i) / (1 + i)}n for which the expression has a positive integer value. where n is a real number [TITA]
Solution:
(1 - i) / (1 + i) = (1 - i)2 / [(1 + i) (1 – i)]
= [1 +i2-2i]/[1 -i2]
= [-2i]/2 = -i
So, {(1 - i) / (1 + i)}n = (-i)n
For an expression to be a positive integer, the least value of n must be 2.
Direction Q7- Q8:
Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) ALONE is not sufficient to answer the question asked.
Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) ALONE is not sufficient to answer the question asked.
BOTH statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question asked, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient to answer the question asked.
EACH statement ALONE is sufficient to answer the question asked.
Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question asked, and additional data specific to the problem are needed.
Q7. Joshan lent one part of the amount of money at a 12% rate of simple interest and the remaining at an 18% rate of simple interest, both for one year. At what rate was the larger part lent?
The total amount lent was $3600.
The average rate of simple interest he received on the total amount was 16%.
Ans: [B]
Statement 1:
It is not sufficient. No information is there.
Statement 2:
Let Rs x be lent at the rate of 12% per annum and Rs y at the rate of 18% per annum.
So, as per question
16% (x+ y) = 12% of x + 18% of y
⇒ 4% of x = 2% of y
⇒ x/y = ½
⇒ y> x
So, the larger part of rent at 18% per annum.
Statement 2 alone is sufficient to answer the question.
Q8. Each Month Andrew receives a base salary of $1700, plus a 20 percent bonus on the total amount of his sales in excess of $1,5000. What was the total amount of Andrew’s sales last month?
Last month Andrew’s total salary was 120% of his basic pay.
Last month Andrew donated his commission which was 25% more than that of the previous month.
Ans: [A]
Statement 1:
Total salary= Basic Pay + Commission
Basic Pay = 100% = $1700
Commission = 120-100= 20% of basic pay = 20% of total sales
So, total sales = basic pay
Statement 1 alone is sufficient.
Statement 2:
As no information is given about the previous month's sales, the current month's sales cannot be calculated.
Statement 2 alone is not sufficient.
CAT Practice Test Part B: LRDI Logical Reasoning and Data Interpretation) Passage: (Q1-Q4)
Ten teams that were to take part in the Champions Challenge were divided into two pools – Pool A and Pool B. Each team in a pool was to play every other team in that pool. Two points are awarded for a win and zero points for a loss with there being no draws or ties. The top three teams in each pool would advance to the next stage called the super six stage and they would carry forward all points they scored in matches against the other two teams which advanced to the super six stages from its pool.
In the super six stages, all teams that advance from pool A are to be in group 1 and all teams that advance from pool B are to be in group 2. Each team in group 1 plays against every team in group 2, with points awarded as in the pool stage. At the end of the super six stages the top two teams in each group, according to their total points (super six points + carry forward points) advance to the semi-finals with the top team in group 1 playing the second team from group 2 and vice versa. The winners of the semi-finals advance to the finals. If two or more teams end up with the same number of points at the end of the pool or the super six stage, the tie is resolved using tiebreak rules.
Q1. The total number of matches in the tournament are
24
18
32
64
Q2. The number of points scored by a team which advanced to the super six stages is at least
2
3
5
4
Q3. The total points (super six points + carry forward points) of a team that advanced to the semi-finals is at least
2
3
5
4
Q4. The maximum number of wins by a team that failed to advance to the semi-finals is
2
3
5
6
Solution:
In the pool stage, as each team plays every other team once, the total matches in each pool is 10. In the super six stages, the total number of matches is 9. ∴ The total matches = 20 + 9 + 2 + 1 = 32. In the pool stage, the total number of points available in each pool is 10 × 2 = 20. As there are five teams, each team can end with four points and two of the teams can be eliminated (or) One team can win all matches and get 8 points, another team 6 points and the three other teams 2 points each and one of them can advance to the super six.
Ans 1: The total number of matches in the tournament is 32. Choice (C)
Ans 2: The number of points scored by a team which advanced to the super six stages is at least 2. Choice (A)
Ans 3: Among the top three teams advancing to the super six stages from each group either all of them would carry forward 2 points each (or) one team would carry forward 4 points, the second team 2 points and the third team zero points. Even if all three teams lose all their super six matches, two teams would advance from this group and so a team with a total of 2 points can advance to the semi-finals. Choice (A)
Ans 4: Three teams can end up with 6 points each at the end of the pool stage, i.e., three wins each. Now, these teams can win all their matches in the super six stages, but one of these teams would be eliminated. ∴a team with 3(in the pool stage) + 3(in the super six stage) wins can be eliminated. Choice (D)
Passage: (Q5- Q8)
Geeta and Neeta are playing a game which involves picking up coins kept on a table. The players take turns alternately and each player in her turn has to pick at least two and at most five coins except when there is only one coin left on the table and the player has to pick that coin in her turn. Both players are equally intelligent and play to the best of their abilities to win the game. Additional data for questions 5 and 6: Assume that the player who picks up the last coin loses the game.
Q5. During a game, when it was Geeta’s turn to play, there were 32 coins left on the table. Which of the following can be the number of coins Geeta should pick up so as to win the game, no matter how Neeta plays?
1
2
4
5
Ans: [B]
To ensure her win Geeta has to make sure that there are one or two coins left when it is Neeta’s turn to play. In each round, Geeta can make sure that seven coins (2 + 5) leave the table.
∴ The number of coins left on the table before Neeta’s turn must be of the form 7n + 1 or 7n + 2 where n is an integer. As there are 32 coins left on the table, she must remove two or three coins, so that the coins left over are of the form 7n + 1 or 7n + 2
Q6. During Neeta’s turn if she removed four coins from the table which made sure that she won the game, then which of the following could have been the number of coins on the table before she removed the four coins?
45
52
76
None of these
Ans: [C]
The number of coins left after Neeta’s turn must be of the form 7n + 1 or 7n + 2. As she removed four coins, the number of coins would here be of the form 7n + 5 or 7n + 6. Only choice (C) satisfies this condition. Choice (C)
Additional data for questions 7 and 8: Assume that the player who picks up the last coin wins the game.
Q7. During a game when it was Neeta’s turn to play, there were 28 coins left on the table. Which of the following is the number of coins she should pick up so as to ensure her win?
1
2
4
Neeta cannot win
Ans: [D]
When the person who picks up the last coin wins the game, one has to make sure that when it is the other person’s turn to play there are six or seven coins left on the table so that whatever the other person plays, one can pick the last coin in his/her turn.
∴ The number of coins left on the table before Geeta’s turn has to be of the form 7n or 7n – 1. As there as 28 coins left on the table, which is of the form 7n, whatever Neeta plays, the number of coins left will not be of the form ‘7n or 7n – 1’ before Geeta’s turn ie Neeta cannot win no matter what she does.
Q8. If during her turn Neeta had to remove two coins so as to ensure her win, then which of the following could have been the number of coins on the table before she removed the coins?
25
30
50
More than one of the above
Ans: [D]
As Neeta removed 2 coins, the number of coins was of the form 7n + 2 or 7n + 1. Choices (B) and (C) satisfy this. Choice (D)
CAT Practice Test Part C: VARC (Verbal Ability & Reading Comprehension)
Part C of the CAT Practice Test emphasises Verbal Ability and Reading Comprehension (VARC). This section includes diverse question types, such as reading passages, grammar, and vocabulary, designed to enhance language skills and critical thinking. Mastering the Verbal Ability and Reading Comprehension syllabus is crucial for achieving a competitive score in the CAT exam.
Q1. Statement: Should religion be included in the curriculum of graduation courses?
Arguments:
I. No, we live in a secular state
II. Yes, teaching religion helps in developing moral values among students.
III. No, how can one dream of such a step when we want our young generation to fulfil their roles in this century?
All are strong
None is strong
Only I is strong
Only II is strong
Only I and III are strong
Ans: [D]
Argument I: Being a secular state does not mean that religion or religious values should be eradicated. Weak argument.
Argument II: Yes, it helps to develop moral values. So, it is a strong argument.
Argument III: does not relate to religion. Weak argument.
Q2. Statement: The government decided to include the income generated out of agricultural activities in Tax. Should it have happened?
Arguments:
I. No, Natural calamities are making Farmers suffer a lot.
II. Yes, around 70% of the population is earning from agriculture and hence their income should be taxed.
III. Yes, many farmers are earning much more than most services men and they should be taxed to remove unfairness.
All are strong
None is strong
Only I is strong
Only II is strong
Only II and III are strong
Ans: [E]
Argument I: If due to natural calamity, they earn less than they will not come under taxpayers as per Income tax act. This is a weak argument.
Argument II: Yes, if more people pay taxes, the economy of our country will be strong. Strong argument.
Argument III: If they are earning more, they should pay taxes. Strong argument.
Q3. Statement: I cannot connect you on zoom meeting at the Himalayas.
Assumptions:
I. Internet facility is not available there.
II. Nowadays, it is difficult to connect to the internet.
Only I is implicit
Only II is implicit
Either I or II is implicit
Neither I nor II is implicit
Both implicit
Ans: [A]
Clearly, the assumption I is implicit. If there is no internet facility then it is impossible to connect for online meetings. So, I is implicit.
Connecting to the internet is difficult but not impossible. So, II is not implicit.
Q4. Statement: ‘Triple your money in 6 months’- An advertisement in a newspaper.
Assumptions:
I. Advertisement is not genuine.
II. Everyone wants to multiply their money.
Only I is implicit
Only II is implicit
Either I or II is implicit
Neither I nor II is implicit
Both implicit
Ans: [B]
Trueness of a statement cannot be judged. So, I is not implicit.
Advertisement is given after assuming that everyone wants to grow their money. So, II is implicit.
Q5. Statement: Until economic equality is achieved, the political freedom and democracy of any country are meaningless.
Conclusions:
I. Political freedom and democracy pass from generation to generation.
II. Economic equality brings real democracy.
Only I is followed
Only II is followed
Either I or II is followed
Neither I nor II is followed
Both followed
Ans: [B]
I. There is no relation between political freedom and economical equality is given. So, will not follow.
II. Directly follows from the statement.
Q6. Statement: Nowadays, parents are prepared to pay any cost for good education for their children.
Conclusions:
I. All parents are very rich.
II. Parents are passionate about the development of their children through good education.
Only I is followed
Only II is followed
Either I or II is followed
Neither I nor II is followed
Both followed
Ans: [B]
I. Irrelevant. Not follows.
II. Directly follows from the statement.
Q7. Write the correct phrase in place of underlined phrase. Whoever is chosen as the new chief, it is likely to take all the decisions for upcoming assembly elections.
Who is chosen as the new chief, she is
Whomever is chosen as the new chief, he is
Whoever is chosen as the new chief is
No correction required
Ans: [C]
Use of ‘who’ is incorrect.
‘Whomever’ is the wrong word in this context.
It is correct.
Q8. Write the correct phrase in place of underlined phrase. Indian Cricket star Virat Kohli has credited his former coach for having a positive effect on his game.
to have had a positive effect on his game.
with having had a positive effect on his game.
as having a dramatic effect on his game.
for having had a positive impact on his game.
Ans: [B]
Credit for- used to ascribe an achievement to someone.
Credit with- To give/get credit for something.
Credit to- normally used in the context of payment.
So, option B seems correct.
Benefits of Attempting CAT 2025 Practice Test
Attempting the CAT 2025 practice test is crucial for aspiring MBA candidates. It enhances exam readiness, familiarises students with the test format, and helps identify strengths and weaknesses, ultimately boosting confidence and performance on the actual exam day.
The CAT exam consists of three sections: Quantitative Ability, Data Interpretation & Logical Reasoning, and Verbal Ability & Reading Comprehension. By taking practice tests, candidates become accustomed to the specific question types and marking schemes, such as multiple-choice questions and non-MCQs. This familiarity reduces uncertainty and helps candidates navigate the exam more efficiently.
The CAT exam is known for its strict time constraints, with a total duration of 120 minutes for three sections. Practice tests allow candidates to develop strategies for pacing themselves, ensuring they allocate appropriate time to each section. This skill is crucial for maximising CAT 2025 scores, as candidates learn to balance speed and accuracy under pressure.
Each practice test provides detailed performance analytics, highlighting areas where candidates struggle, such as specific mathematical concepts or reading comprehension skills. By analysing these results, candidates can focus their study efforts on weaker subjects, ensuring a more balanced preparation and improving overall performance in the actual exam.
Regularly attempting practice tests helps candidates build confidence in their abilities. As they see improvement in their scores and become more comfortable with the CAT exam pattern 2025. This psychological readiness is vital for performing well on the actual test day, where nerves can impact performance.
Taking practice tests under timed conditions mimics the actual CAT exam environment, helping candidates acclimate to the pressure of the test. This simulation includes managing distractions and maintaining focus for the entire duration of the exam. Such practice is essential for developing the mental stamina needed to perform at one’s best when it counts.
Hope you were able to practise the questions and were able to grasp the concepts.
Day 57 will be uploaded tomorrow
Keep practising and be focused
Thank you!
All the best!
Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs)
Q: Was CAT 2025 tough?
A:
CAT 2025 is yet to take place, so its difficulty level can’t be assessed. Keep preparing consistently, as the CAT generally tests logic, speed, and precision.
Q: How should I prepare for CAT 2025?
A:
Start with basics, build concepts, practice topic-wise questions, and take regular mocks. Analyse mistakes deeply, revise often, and focus on time and accuracy management.
Q: Is 40 mocks enough for a CAT?
A:
Yes, 40 quality mocks are enough if reviewed properly. Focus on post-mock analysis, strategy tweaking, and pattern recognition for steady score improvement.
Q: What is the benefit of CAT practice set?
A:
Practice sets boost speed, accuracy, and confidence. They simulate exam pressure, strengthen weak areas, and help in understanding CAT-level question patterns effectively.
Q: Which mock test series is best for CAT 2025?
A:
TIME, IMS, and CL offer the best CAT mock series. Their detailed analysis, variety in difficulty levels, and real CAT-like interface build exam readiness.
Q: Is CAT tougher than IIT?
A:
CAT and IIT entrance tests (JEE Advanced) are demanding in different manners. JEE Advanced is conceptually challenging in Math, Physics, and Chemistry, and demands years of study, whereas CAT checks aptitude, reasoning, and language. CAT is demanding because of its time limitations, unpredictability, and competitiveness, but for an individual with a high aptitude, it is less demanding than JEE Advanced.
Q: Will CAT 2025 be tough?
A:
CAT has a moderate to high level of difficulty, and the complexity of questions changes every year. The Quant and LRDI sections tend to be tricky because of the time factor, whereas VARC demands good reading comprehension skills. Candidates can increase their performance with regular practice, mock tests, and a proper strategy, and they can tackle the difficulty in an effective manner.
Q: What is the syllabus of CAT 2025?
A:
The CAT 2025 syllabus contains three broad sections: Quantitative Aptitude (QA) which covers arithmetic, algebra, geometry, and number systems; Logical Reasoning & Data Interpretation (LRDI) on puzzles, seating arrangements, and data analysis; and Verbal Ability & Reading Comprehension (VARC) which encompasses reading passages, sentence correction, and para jumbles. Although CAT has no definitive syllabus, the practice of solving old question papers and mock tests provides an idea about the pattern of the exam.
Q: Which IIM will set CAT 2025?
A:
The responsibility of conducting CAT is rotated among the Indian Institutes of Management (IIMs) yearly. Although the concerned IIM for CAT 2025 is not officially announced as yet, it will be among the leading IIMs, e.g., IIM Ahmedabad, Bangalore, Calcutta, Lucknow, or Kozhikode. The selected IIM will create the paper, conduct the test process, and conduct a just and challenging examination.
Q: When to apply for the CAT exam 2025?
A:
Application procedure for CAT 2025 is expected start in August 2025 and go up to September 2025. Registration is necessary online on the official CAT site, and it includes the filing of the application form along with the payment of the examination fee. The exam is expected to be conducted on 30th November 2025 and admit cards will get released a few days before the exam date.
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Have a question related to CAT ?
With a 70 percent in CAT Examination, you can go for various B-Schools or private collages. The S. K. Patel Institute of Management in Gandhinagar is an option for those who score 70-80 percent in their CAT examination or The Gujarat Institute of Management (GIM) in Goa with a cutoff of 60-80 percentage. These are the collages you can look for in Gujarat or nearby.
Collage in other regions: BA Colleges Accepting 70-80 Percentile in CAT 2025
Thank You.
Hello dear candidate,
NO. your application for CAT will not rejected for wrong gender small mistake in the OBC NCL certificate. You will be considered as an OBC candidate.
Hello,
Here are some top MBA colleges in India with fees under Rs. 2 lakh and their exam/cutoff details:
-
SIMSREE, Mumbai – Fee around Rs. 1.3–1.4 lakh for 2 years. Accepts CAT, CMAT, MAH-CET, MAT, ATMA. Cutoff is very high, usually 99+ percentile in CAT/CMAT.
-
PUMBA (Dept. of Management Sciences, Savitribai Phule Pune University) – Fee around Rs. 1.2–1.3 lakh. Accepts CAT, CMAT, MAH-CET, ATMA. Cutoff approx. 75+ percentile in CAT, 90–95+ percentile in CMAT, high scores in MAH-CET.
-
TISS, Mumbai (MA HRM & other management-related programmes) – Fee around Rs. 1.7–1.9 lakh. Accepts CAT for some courses. Qualifying cutoff is around 60–70 percentile, but final selection cutoffs are higher.
These are the main government institutes where the full MBA/PG programme fee is within Rs. 2 lakh. Cutoffs vary slightly each year and by category, but SIMSREE and PUMBA generally need high scores, while TISS has its own process along with CAT shortlisting.
Hope it helps !
Hey! With a NEET score of 344 in the ST category, it is highly unlikely to get admission in any government BDS college in Delhi through the All India Quota. The cutoff for government BDS seats in Delhi usually falls around 400–450 for ST category, so your score is below that range.
You can consider private dental colleges, state quota seats in other states, or reattempt NEET next year to improve your chances.
Hello dear candidate,
YES, with NEET score 344in the ST category you have high chances of getting admission in a BDS College in J&K through JKBOPEE counselling.
check the seat availability and next participate in JKBOPEE Counselling with all the necessary documents.
Thank you.
Popular CAT Questions
Directions for question :
M/s Deloitte Touche Tohmatsu Limited, one of the top four audit and accounting firms in the world with headquarters at London, UK, and with an operational presence in 153 countries, hires Management Trainees (MT) from all the premier management institutes of India thrice every year, in the months of January, May and September.
Each new group of Management Trainees (MT) have to go through a four month rigorous training schedule, after which they have to pass through a test consisting of a written assessment and a case-analysis. The top hundred ranked Management Trainees (MT) based on the performance in the test are confirmed as Management Executives (ME). The rest are given the opportunity of undergoing the training for four months one more time along with the next batch of Management Trainees (MT) and then passing through the subsequent test consisting of the written assessment and case-analysis. The Management Trainee (MT) who fails to get confirmed as a Management Executive (ME) the second time is fired.
The scatter-graph below depicts the number of Management Trainees (MT) at Deloitte taking the tests from January 2020 till May 2022, and the vis-à-vis hired Management Trainees (MT) at Deloitte who were fired :
It is also known that for the month of September 2019 at Deloitte, 96 hired Management Trainees (MT) failed to be confirmed as a Management Executive (ME) the first time, and that 36 hired Management Trainees (MT) were fired.
Question :
In which test did the minimum number of Management Trainees (MT) get confirmed as a Management Executive (ME) in the second attempt ?
Option: 1
September 2020
Option: 2
May 2021
Option: 3
January 2021
Option: 4
January 2022
Directions for question:
The bar-graph given below shows the foreign exchange reserves of Nepal (in million Rupees) from 2014 to 2021. Answer the following questions based on the graph :
Question:
What was the percentage increase (rounded to the nearest integer, if deemed necessary) in the foreign exchange reserves in 2020 over 2016 ?
Option: 1 None
Option: 2 None
Option: 3 None
Option: 4 None
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