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Candidates can download the unofficial MAH BBA CET 2024 question paper with answers on this page. Coaching institute such as Manoeuvre Education has released the unofficial MAH BBA CET question paper 2024. Candidates can download MAH BBA CET 2024 paper with solution to calculate their probable marks. Solving a MAH BBA CET sample paper helps in understanding the exam pattern and difficulty level. Direct link for MAH BBA CET question paper 2024 for GK and computer applications are updated here. CET Cell Maharashtra is expected to release MAH BBA CET 2024 question paper at cetcell.mhacet.org in June. CET Cell Maharashtra conducted the MAH BBA CET on May 29, 2024. Read the complete article to know more about MAH BBA CET paper 2024. Many students refer to a MAH BBA CET sample paper to improve their time management skills.
The MAH BBA CET exam sample paper provides insight into the types of questions asked. Given below is the set of MAH BBA CET question paper 2024 released by Manoeuvre Education for the enhanced preparation of the candidates. Practicing with a MAH BBA CET exam sample paper can boost confidence before the actual test.
BBA CET Reasoning Questions with Answers | BBA CET English Questions with Answers |
It is highly recommended that the students should attempt at least one MAH BBA CET exam sample paper daily for better preparation. The authorities will release the MAH BBA CET question paper tentatively a week after the entrance exam. MAH BBA CET 2024 was held on May 29. To download the question paper of MAH BBA CET 2024, candidates will have to use their application number and password.
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Login using the application number and password
Upon successful login, the question paper pdf will be displayed on the screen.
The authorities will also release the MAH BBA CET answer key 2025. The answer key will consist of the correct answers to all questions that are included in the question paper. With the help of the answer key of MAH BBA CET 2025, candidates will be able to calculate their probable secured marks. Candidates will have to visit cetcell.mahacet.orh to download the answer key of MAH BBA CET 2025.
The Maharashtra State Common Entrance Test cell is yet to release the offiial MAH BBA CET sample paper 2025. The link to the latest MAH BBA CET 2025 sample paper will be provided here as soon as the official MAH BBA CET 2025 preparation material will be available. The latest MAH BBA CET 2025 sample paper includes updated question patterns. In the meantime, many coaching institutes provide a MAH BBA CET 2025 sample paper for practice. The aspiarnts can refer to these as well.
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MAH BBA CET 2025 sample paper | To be released soon |
Careers360 has designed an MAH BBA CET sample paper for the candidates' overall MAH BBA CET preparation. This MAH BBA CET 2025 sample paper follows the exact pattern of the examination and its difficulty level. All the MAH BBA CET 2025 aspirants are highly suggested to download and practice this sample paper.
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Downloading multiple MAH BBA CET sample papers will help the candidates in thorough exam preparation. Along with sample questions, candidates can also check the MAH BBA CET syllabus and exam pattern. Continue reading to know more about MAH BBA CET 2024 sample paper. Direct link to access the sample questions of MAH BBA CET 2024 is mentioned below. Candidates should also keep in mind that experts recommend attempting MAH BBA CET sample papers to identify weak areas.
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MAH BBA CET Sample Paper 2024 | Download Now |
The candidates can refer to a few sample questions for practice before attempting the MAH BBA CET examination. For a further practice, they can download the MAH MBA CET sample paper ebook given above.
Read the following passage and answer the question.
In the years leading up to the Russian Revolution of 1917, the country had a succession of wars. These were the Crimean War, the Russo-Turkish War, the Russo-Japanese War, and World War I. All of these required a lot from the state, including tax dollars and manpower. Russia suffered defeats in all, except against Turkey. This series of wars caused major dissatisfaction among the people and caused suffering in the country's economy and government.
Along with these wars, there were three major parties that contributed to the cause of the revolution. First, there were the peasants, who maintained the majority of the population in Russia. They were excessively poor and could barely escape famine from harvest to harvest. The population boom in Russia from 1867 to 1896 was most drastically felt by the peasants. The increase of 30 million people in less than 30 years was so great that the land for the peasants’ disposal did not increase sufficiently. The government tried to help, but the war took precedence. Second, there was a rise in the industrial working class. These workers were employed in the mines, factories, and workshops of the major cities. They suffered for wages, poor housing, and many accidents. Again, the government tried to help by passing factory acts to restrict the number of hours one could work; however, their efforts were too small a scale to have any effect. As a result, there were many strikes and constant conflicts between the workers and the police. Lastly, the tsar of Russia was the cause of much disapproval. Tsar Nicholas II was much more interested in his family life than matters of the state. He had an obsession with retaining all of his privileges and the belief that he was chosen by God to rule. Also, he didn't understand the forces of industrialization and nationalism that were growing throughout Russia. His disregard for the struggles of the people led them to lose faith in him and the longstanding tradition of autocracy. The people were not content and were ready to revolt. They just needed a good reason and a strong leader.
Question:
Which of the following words is the ANTONYM of the word "precedence" in the passage?
Options:
Solution:
The correct choice is the third option.
While precedence refers to the condition of being considered more important or having a higher priority, disruptions indicate the act of interrupting or causing a disturbance, suggesting a lack of order or priority.
Question 2:
Which of the following can be a suitable title for the given passage?
Options
Correct Answer:
The Russian Revolution
Solution:
The correct choice is the second option.
The passage covers a range of significant factors contributing to the Russian Revolution, including a series of wars, the plight of peasants, the challenges faced by the industrial working class, and the dissatisfaction with Tsar Nicholas II.
Therefore, the appropriate title is: The Russian Revolution.
Question 3:
On the basis of the information given in the passage, which of the following statements is NOT correct?
Options
Correct Answer:
Tsar Nicholas II was much more interested in matters of the state than his family life.
Solution:
The correct choice is the first option.
The passage states the opposite: "Tsar Nicholas II is much more interested in his family life than matters of state." The passage mentions his obsession with retaining privileges, his belief that he was chosen by God to rule, and his lack of understanding of the forces at play in Russia. This indicates a greater focus on personal matters than the affairs of the state.
Therefore, the incorrect statement is:
Tsar Nicholas II was much more interested in matters of the state than his family life.
Q. 4 Directions:
In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative that will improve the bracketed part of the sentence. In case no improvement is needed, select "No Improvement."
She has an (ability) for Mathematics.
Options
Correct Answer:
(2) aptitude
Solution:
The sentence can be improved using the second option "aptitude".
The word "aptitude" is a more precise and appropriate term in the context of discussing someone's natural skill or talent for mathematics.
The meanings of the other options are as follows:
Therefore, the correct sentence is: "She has an aptitude for Mathematics."
Q. 5 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.
The child felt down from a great height.
Options
Correct Answer:
child fell down
Solution:
The correct choice is the third option.
This option uses the past tense form of the verb fall, which is fell, to indicate that the child has already experienced the action of falling from a great height. The past tense is appropriate in this context because it describes a completed action that happened in the past. The other options either have the incorrect verb tense or lack clarity in expressing the past action.
Therefore, the correct sentence is: The child fell down from a great height.
Q. 1
In a division sum, the divisor is 11 times the quotient and 5 times the remainder. If the remainder is 44, then the dividend is:
Options
Correct Answer:
4444
Solution:
Divisor = (5 × 44) = 220
∴ 11 × Quotient = 220
∴ Quotient = 220 ÷ 11 = 20
Dividend = (Divisor × Quotient) + Remainder
= (220 × 20) + 44
= 4400 + 44
= 4444
Hence, the correct answer is 4444.
Q. 2 By selling a watch for INR 2,000, a shopkeeper loses 20%. How much would he gain or lose by selling it for INR 3,000?
Options
Correct Answer:
20% gain
Solution:
Selling Price = INR 2,000
Loss = 20% of Cost Price
Selling Price = 80% of Cost Price
2,000 = 80% × Cost Price
Cost Price = (2,000 ÷ 80) × 100 = 2,500
Selling Price = INR 3,000
Here SP > CP
So, it’s a profit.
Profit = 3000 – 2500 = INR 500
Profit % = (500 ÷ 2500) × 100 = 20%
Hence, the correct answer is 20% gain.
Q. 3 In a cricket match, there are three types of tickets say A, B, and C each costing Rs. 1000, Rs. 500, and Rs. 200 respectively. The ratio of the tickets sold in categories A, B, and C is 3 : 2 : 5. If the total collection from selling the tickets is Rs. 2.5 crores. Find the total number of tickets sold.
Options
Correct Answer:
50000
Solution:
Let the number of tickets be 3n, 2n, and 5n.
According to the question,
(3n × 1000) + (2n × 500) + (5n × 200) = 25000000
= 3000n + 1000n + 1000n = 25000000
= 5000n = 25000000
n = 25000000 ÷ 5000 = 5000
So, total number of tickets = (3n + 2n + 5n) = 10n = (10 × 5000) = 50000
Hence, the correct answer is 50000.
Q. 4 Directions: Which of the following numbers will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?
29, 36, 44, 53, 63, ?
Options
Correct Answer
74
Solution:
Given:
29, 36, 44, 53, 63, ?
Add consecutive numbers to the previous term to obtain the next term.
29 + 7 = 36; 36 + 8 = 44; 44 + 9 = 53; 53 + 10 = 63; 63 + 11 = 74
So, 74 is the missing term of the series. Hence, the first option is correct.
Q. 4 Directions: In a certain code language, PHONE is written as NFMLC. How is POINT written in that code language?
Options
Correct Answer
NMGLR
Solution:
Given:
PHONE is written as NFMLC.
For the word PHONE → P = N; H = F; O = M; N = L; E = C
Similarly, for the word POINT → P = N; O = M; I = G; N = L; T = R
So, POINT is written as NMGLR.
Hence, the first option is correct.
Q. 1 In 1867, Keshab Chandra Sen helped Atmaram Pandurang found the Prarthana Samaj in ____.
Options
Correct Answer
Bombay
Solution:
The correct answer is Bombay.
In the 1860s, a Hindu reform group called the Prarthana Samaj was founded in Bombay. Dr. Atmaram Pandurang founded it in Maharashtra in 1867, influenced by Brahmo leader Keshab Chandra Sen. It encouraged widow remarriage, intercaste marriage, widow remarriage, and other practices.
Q. 2 Where is Red Lake found?
Options
Correct Answer
USA
Solution:
The correct answer is the USA.
Red Lake is situated in Beltrami County, northern Minnesota, USA. This lake holds the distinction of being the largest natural freshwater lake entirely within the state of Minnesota and ranks as the 16th largest lake in the United States. Notably, a peninsula on the eastern side nearly divides the lake into two distinct sections.
Q. 3 Which among the following dances is also known as Ekaharya, where one dancer takes on many roles in a single performance?
Options
Correct Answer:
Bharatanatyam
Solution:
The correct option is Bharatanatyam.
Bharatanatyam is a dance known as Ekaharya, where one dancer takes on many roles in a single performance. The dance involves transitional movements of the leg, hip, and arm. Expressive eye movements and hand gestures are used to convey emotions. Bharatanatyam is one of the eight Indian classical dance forms.
Q. 1 Sending a frame to a group of stations is known as
Options
Correct Answer:
Multicasting
Solution:
The correct option is Multicasting.
Multicasting is a type of group communication where information is addressed to a group of destination computers simultaneously and can be received by a group of stations. Frames sent to a multicast destination address can be received by all the stations configured to listen for that multicast address.
Q. 2 What is the full form of JPEG?
Options
Correct Answer:
Joint Photographic Experts Group
Solution:
The correct answer is Joint Photographic Experts Group.
Joint Photographic Experts Group, the group that developed the JPEG standard and other still image coding standards, is known by the initials "JPEG." It is adaptable to a wide range of formats. JPEG can both decompress and compress an image into a byte stream. The codec used to compress an image into byte streams and then decompress it back into a picture is specified by the JPEG specifications.
Q. 3 What is a bug in computer terminology?
Options
Correct Answer:
An error in program.
Solution:
The correct answer is An error in program.
In computer terminology, a bug refers to an error, flaw, or unexpected behavior in software or hardware that causes it to behave in unintended ways. Bugs can manifest in various forms, including causing programs to crash, produce incorrect results, or not function as expected.
Before attempting the MAH BBA CET sample paper 2025, candidates are advised to refer to the syllabus as released by the authorities. With the help of the MAH BBA CET syllabus 2025, candidates can know the topics from which the questions will be asked in the entrance exam.
Sections | Topics |
Reasoning | Verbal as well as arithmetic |
English Language & General Awareness | Culture, current national, and international affairs, trade & commerce, sports, scientific inventions, and discoveries |
Computer basics | - |
Along with the syllabus, aspirants should also check the paper pattern of MAH BBA CET to know important details such as mode of exam, duration, types of questions, and more. Solving the various MAH CET BBA sample papers 2025 that are designed according to the latest syllabus, can help the candidates secure a very good CUET BBA score.
Particular | Details |
Mode of Exam | Online |
Total Questions | 100 |
Type of Questions | Multiple choice objective-type questions (Four Options) |
Negative Marking | No negative marking |
Test Duration | 90 minutes |
Medium of Exam | English |
Students should solve MAH CET BBA sample papers 2025 to assess their preparation level. This will also help them to understand the question distribution of the examination. Practicing MAH CET BBA sample papers 2025 can help in improving time management during the exam.
Section | Total Questions | Marks per question |
English Language | 40 | 1 |
Reasoning (Verbal and Arithmetic) | 30 | 1 |
General Knowledge & Awareness | 15 | 1 |
Computer Basics | 15 | 1 |
Read More:
Practicing with sample papers helps candidates understand the exam pattern, question types, and difficulty level. It also improves time management and boosts confidence before the actual exam. Experts recommend solving at least one sample paper daily.
To download the official question paper, visit cetcell.mahacet.org, log in using your application number and password, and access the PDF once released by the authorities.
Solving previous year question papers helps candidates understand the exam pattern, frequently asked topics, and difficulty level. It also allows them to practice time management and identify weak areas.
No, there is no negative marking in MAH BBA CET 2024. Each correct answer carries one mark, and there is no penalty for incorrect responses.
The MAH BBA CET exam consists of 100 multiple-choice questions, divided into sections like English Language (40 questions), Reasoning (30 questions), General Knowledge & Awareness (15 questions), and Computer Basics (15 questions). The total duration of the exam is 90 minutes.
Application Date:24 December,2024 - 07 June,2025
Application Date:14 February,2025 - 27 March,2025
Application Date:20 February,2025 - 26 May,2025
Application Correction Date:19 March,2025 - 21 March,2025
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