Pearl Academy BBA 2026
No. 1 Design & Fashion Institute by ASSOCHAM, India Today, Outlook and The Week rankings
MAH BBA CET Exam Date:28 Apr' 26 - 30 Apr' 26
The MAH BBA CET 2026 exam analysis will be available after the exam. The exam analysis of MAH BBA CET 2026 will provide information on the difficulty level of the exam, important topics covered in the exam, and more. The CET Cell will conduct the MAH BBA CET 2026 exam tentatively in the fourth week of April 2026, across multiple shifts. In this article, get details about the MAH BBA CET 2026 exam analysis, including the previous year's analysis.
This Story also Contains
As per the MAH BBA CET exam pattern, the test consists of questions from four sections, namely English language, reasoning, general knowledge & awareness, and computer basics. Shortlisted candidates from the exam will be offered admission into the BBA programmes of participating colleges in Maharashtra.
The MAH BBA CET entrance exam is divided into four (4) sections spread across 100 questions. Each question carries 1 mark with total marks for the exam being 100 marks
Topics | No. of questions | Marks per question | Maximum marks |
English language | 40 | 1 | 40 |
Reasoning (verbal and arithmetic) | 30 | 1 | 30 |
General knowledge and awareness | 15 | 1 | 15 |
Computer basics | 15 | 1 | 15 |
Total marks | 100 | ||
The MAH BBA CET exam analysis 2026 will be updated here after the exam. Meanwhile, candidates can go through the previous year's exam analysis to prepare well for the exam.
Given below is the previous year's exam analysis for multiple shifts of the MAH BBA CET 2026.
The MAH BBA CET 2025 exam on April 29th, Shift 1, followed the same marking scheme as previous years, providing candidates with a familiar structure. The overall exam was balanced, not too lengthy, and manageable within the time limits.
English Section:
30 questions were asked, primarily focusing on grammar and comprehension.
Key topics included:
Reading Comprehension (RC): 4 questions from one RC set.
Synonyms: 1 question.
Active/Passive Voice: 3-4 questions.
Tenses: 4-5 questions.
Prepositions: 4-5 questions.
Fill in the Blanks (Grammar): 7-8 questions.
Noun and Adverb: 1 question each.
The English section was considered easy, with a focus on basic grammar and vocabulary.
Reasoning Section:
This section had 40 questions, a mix of verbal and arithmetic reasoning.
Major topics included:
Family Tree: 3-4 questions.
Series: 4-5 questions.
Coding and Decoding: 4-5 questions.
Linear Arrangement: 1 question.
BODMAS: 1-2 questions.
Syllogism: 2-3 questions.
Visual Reasoning: 1 question.
Arithmetic (DI, Age, Average): 5 questions.
Verbal Reasoning: 3-4 questions.
Implicit Statements: 2-3 questions.
The reasoning section was also easy, with most candidates able to complete it comfortably within the time limit.
General Knowledge & Awareness:
15 questions were included in this section, covering various current affairs and general knowledge topics such as:
Monetary Policy & RBI
Olympics/Commonwealth Games
Politics
Locations of Known Places
Important Dates in Commerce
This section was moderate in difficulty, requiring some knowledge of current events and general facts.
Computer Basics:
15 questions focused on the fundamentals of computers, including:
Basic Input/Output Devices
Data Storage
Full Forms
Types of Devices
Inventors
This section tested candidates' knowledge of basic computer concepts and was considered relatively straightforward.
Overall Difficulty: Easy to Moderate
English Language:
Mostly vocabulary-based questions, including antonyms, synonyms, idioms, and phrases.
Some grammar questions like sentence improvement were present.
Reading comprehension included 2 small passages that were easy to attempt.
Cloze test and para jumbles were not asked in this shift.
Logical Reasoning:
Focused more on puzzles and seating arrangements.
Questions on number series, syllogisms, blood relations, and direction sense were included.
One puzzle was time-consuming but the rest were manageable.
Quantitative Aptitude:
Included questions on percentages, profit and loss, time and work, and SI/CI.
No data interpretation questions.
Overall, the math questions were formula-based and direct.
General Knowledge:
Static GK dominated over current affairs.
Questions on history, geography, books-authors, and basic polity.
A few questions were factual and required rote memory.
Heavy focus on grammar-based questions:
Modals
Types of Sentences: Simple, Compound, Complex, Interrogative, Imperative
Articles, Prepositions, Conjunctions
Tenses: Past Continuous, Present Perfect
Direct & Indirect Speech
Active & Passive Voice
One Synonym question (none in Shift 1)
One Reading Comprehension passage with 4–5 questions (very easy to read)
No parajumbles or paragraph summary
Advice: Revise grammar thoroughly before the exam.
Logical Reasoning (LR) + Quantitative Aptitude (QA)
Entire section was only Logical Reasoning, making it very easy:
Direction Sense: 2 questions
Blood Relation: 1 question
Coding-Decoding: 3–4 questions
Ranking: 3 questions
Analogies: 2–3 questions
Series Completion: 4–5 questions
Linear Arrangement: 1 question
Syllogisms: 1 question
Dice/Cube-based reasoning: 1 question
No critical reasoning at all
No Statement-Conclusion, Assumption, Assertion-Reason, Course of Action, etc.
General Knowledge (GK)
Around 8–10 questions recalled by students:
Founder of Congress
Founder of SpaceX
Shram Portal and its ministry
Largest airport in India (by land area)
Governor of Maharashtra
India’s oldest language
Child welfare-related scheme and its ministry
ODI World Cup – country with the most wins
Overall Difficulty:Moderate
English Language:
The reading comprehension passage was slightly tricky.
Cloze test, idioms, and phrase-based questions were asked.
Grammar-based questions had moderate difficulty.
Para jumbles were included and required logical sequencing.
Logical Reasoning:
More evenly distributed between verbal and non-verbal reasoning.
Statement-assumption, coding-decoding, and syllogism were commonly seen.
Puzzles were simpler compared to Shift 2 of April 29.
Quantitative Aptitude:
Mixture of arithmetic and algebra questions.
Two data interpretation sets were included but were calculation-light.
Questions on averages, ratios, and ages were also asked.
General Knowledge:
Balanced mix of current affairs and static GK.
Included questions from sports, awards, books-authors, and Indian polity.
Current affairs focused mainly on events from the past 6–8 months.
Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs)
No, there is no negative marking in MAH BBA CET 2026.
There are four sections in MAH BBA CET 2026, namely, english language, reasoning (verbal and arithmetic), general knowledge and awareness, and computer basics.
MAH BBA CET 2026 exam will be held tentatively in the fourth week of April 2026.
Ranked amongst top 3% universities globally (QS Rankings)
#36 in NIRF, NAAC ‘A’ Grade | 100% Placement, up to 30% meritorious scholarships
Recognized as Category-1 Deemed to be University by UGC | 41,000 + Alumni Imprints Globally | Students from over 20+ countries
NAAC A++ Accredited| Ranked #24 in University Category by NIRF
No. 1 Design & Fashion Institute by ASSOCHAM, India Today, Outlook and The Week rankings
BBA | BBA (Hons.) | BBA+ MBA (Integrated) | AACSB, Business Graduates Association, AMDISA Member | Merit-Based Scholarships