UPES | BBA Admissions 2025
#41 in NIRF, NAAC ‘A’ Grade | 100% Placement, up to 30% meritorious scholarships | Last Date to Apply: 23rd June
IPMAT 2025 Exam Analysis: Integrated Program in Management Aptitude Test, popularly known as IPMAT, is conducted by the Indian Institute of Management (IIM), Indore, to select eligible candidates for admission to the five-year Integrated Management Programme. The IPMAT 2025 exam will be held on May 12th, 2025. As soon as the examination gets concluded, the candidates should engage themselves in a comprehensive IPMAT 2025 analysis. Careers360 will be providing the complete IPMAT 2025 analysis on the IPMAT exam day. The candidates are requested to stay tuned and regularly revisit the article for further updates.
The basic step in achieving success in any examination is to properly understand the exam structure of the corresponding examination. The complete IPMAT 2025 examination structure is given below for the candidate's reference.
Parameter | Details |
Exam Duration | 120 Minutes (2 hours) |
Time Allotted to Each Section | 40 Minutes |
Exam Mode | Online |
Number of Sections | Three: - Quantitative Ability (MCQs) - Quantitative Ability (Short Answer Questions) - Verbal Ability (MCQs) |
Types of Questions | Short-answer questions and multiple-choice questions (MCQs) |
Total Marks | 400 |
Marking Scheme | - 4 marks for every correct answer -1 mark for every wrong answer |
The complete IPMAT 2025 analysis will be provided here for the reference of the aspirants on May 12, 2025 as soon as the examination gets concluded.
The memory based questions of the IPMAT 2025 examination will be shared here on the exam day. Stay tuned.
In 2024, the IPMAT exam was held on May 23, 2024. Careers360 brings to you the IPMAT 2024 analysis by experts and test takers. According to experts, the difficulty level of IPMAT 2024 was moderate. As per the IPMAT 2024 exam analysis, the overall difficulty level of the paper was moderate to difficult. The IPMAT exam consisted of three sections: QA-MCQs (30 questions), QA-SA (15 questions), and Verbal Ability (45 questions). The questions were asked about topics like Algebra, Geometry, Analogy, Blood Relations, Para Jumbles, Error Correction, etc. Get a comprehensive overview of the IPMAT exam and overall trends in the IPMAT 2024 exam analysis.Before we move on to the IPMAT analysis 2024, let us first take you through the IPMAT exam pattern for a better understanding of the analysis:
Check out the section-wise IPMAT analysis 2024 by test takers and experts.
This was the first section of the paper, with 10 questions in total. There was no negative marking for this section; however, the questions were moderately difficult. This section also had questions with a mix of concepts.
IPMAT QA Topic (SA) | No. of Questions |
Logarithm | 1 |
Determinant | 1 |
Functions | 2 |
Permutation & Combination | 1 |
Probability | 1 |
Geometry (Circles) | 1 |
Time, Speed, and Distance | 1 |
Arithmetic | 2 |
An attempt of 6-7 questions can be considered good, despite no negative marking.
The level of difficulty of this section was similar to that of the previous year. There were 20 questions, with a sectional time limit of 30 minutes. The breakdown of this section is as follows:
IPMAT QA Topic (MCQs) | Number of questions |
Data Interpretation (1 Set) | 5 |
Progression | 1 |
Logarithm | 2 |
Probability | 3 |
Determinant | 1 |
Set-Based | 2 |
Matrices | 1 |
Functions | 1 |
Trigonometry | 1 |
Geometry | 1 |
Number System | 1 |
Three questions from the data interpretation set were inference-based, while the other two were slightly difficult. Just like last year, questions in higher mathematics were limited. Overall, this was a difficult section. An attempt of 14–15 questions can be considered a good one within the sectional time limit of 30 minutes.
This section was easy-to-moderately difficult. All he 30 questions could easily have been completed within the given time frame. The section was very much like the IPMAT 2019 paper, with a reduced number of questions due to the revised structure. The breakdown of this section is as follows:
IPMAT VA Topic | Number of questions |
Reading-Comprehension (1 Passage) | 6 |
Fill in the Blanks | 5 |
Para Jumbles (TITA) | 3 |
Sentence Correction | 5 |
Word Usage | 3 |
Idioms and Phrases | 5 |
Given the revised structure, there was just one passage that was moderately lengthy. Similar to 2023, the questions on para jumbles did not carry any options.
Overall, students found this section to be easy; thus, the cut-off for this section is expected to be higher than that of the other two sections, similar to last year. An attempt of 25–26 was possible in this section.
Disclaimer: All information on analysis, answer keys, and scores is based on independent analysis and evaluation made by Career Launcher. We do not take responsibility for any decision that might be taken based on this information.
The IPMAT Indore 2024 exam was similar to the previous year, consisting of two primary sections: quantitative ability and verbal ability. The QA section was further divided into QA-Answer and QA-MCQ. The IPMAT exam included 30 questions from QA-MCQ, 15 questions from QA-SA, and 45 questions from verbal ability. However, there were significant changes in these categories. Let's see what these are;
Short Answer Questions: The QA-SA section is said to be easier than last year. Consistent with previous years, there were no negative marks in this section. A new format is introduced in this section, specifically titled medians. A set of three questions on 'Medians' was classified as moderate in difficulty. Other topics covered include quantities, series, functions, number systems, and geometry.
Multiple Choice Questions: On the contrary, the QA-MCQ section was more challenging. Students found the questions tricky and time-consuming. The Data Interpretation and Logical Reasoning (DILR) section, in particular, was confusing and difficult to tackle. Many students struggled with this section, leaving many questions unanswered. Topics covered in QA-MCQ section include 4-5 questions from compound interest, simple interest, number systems, triangles, and logarithms.
The verbal ability (VA) section received mixed reviews from students and was rated moderately difficult. For some, this section was manageable, while others found it challenging. The structure was consistent with the previous year's exam, with two Reading Comprehension (RC) sections, each consisting of six questions. One RC is of medium length, and the other is long. Other elements of the VA section, like phrasal verbs and para jumbles, were particularly difficult and confusing, which may lead to an increase in the cutoff for English this year.
The overall difficulty level of the IPMAT Indore 2024 exam was considered moderate to tough, similar to the previous year's exam. The introduction of new question patterns and different difficulty levels in different sections added unique challenges to the examinees.
While students wait for the results, it remains to be seen how these changes will affect the final cut-off and overall performance.
The candidates can refer to the previous year's questions of the IPMAT examinations. This would help them to understand the IPMAT exam trends and align their preparation better for the IPMAT examination. Section-wise IPMAT previous year's examination questions are given below
1. Vinita drives a car which has four gears. The speed of the car in the fourth gear is five times its speed in the first gear. The car takes twice the time to travel a certain distance in the second gear as compared to the third gear. In a 100 km journey, if Vinita travels equal distances in each of the gears, she takes 585 minutes to complete the journey. Instead, if the distances covered in the first, second, third, and fourth gears are 4 km, 4 km, 32 km, and 60 km, respectively, then the total time taken, in minutes, to complete the journey, will be______.
2. The remainder when 1! + 2! + 3! +∙∙∙+95! is divided by 15 is______.
3. Amisha can complete a particular task in twenty days. After working for four days she fell sick for four days and resumed the work on the ninth day but with half of her original work rate. She completed the task in another twelve days with the help of a co-worker who joined her from the ninth day. The number of days required for the co-worker to complete the task alone would be ______.
4. In an election with only two contesting candidates, 15% of the voters did not turn up to vote, and 50 voters cast invalid votes. It is known that 44% of all the voters in the voting list voted for the winner. If the winner got 200 votes more than the other candidate, then the number of voters in the voting list is_________.
5. In the xy-plane let A = (-2,0), B = (2,0). Define the set S as the collection of all points C on the circle x² + y2 = 4 such that the area of the triangle ABC is an integer. The number of points in the set S is________.
1. A goldsmith bought a large solid golden ball at INR 1,000,000 and melted it to make a certain number of solid spherical beads such that the radius of each bead was one-fifth of the radius of the original ball. Assume that the cost of making golden beads is negligible. If the goldsmith sold all the beads at 20% discount on the listed price and made a total profit of 20%, then the listed price of each golden bead, in INR, was
2. If the difference between compound interest and simple interest for a certain amount of money invested for 3 years at an annual interest rate of 10% is INR 527, then the amount invested in INR is
3. In a group of 120 students, 80 students are from the Science stream and the rest are from the Commerce stream. It is known that 70 students support Mumbai Indians in the Indian Premier League; all the other students support Chennai Super Kings. The number of Science students who are supporters of Mumbai Indians is
4. The minimum number of times a fair coin must be tossed so that the probability of getting at least one head exceeds 0.8 is
5. In a triangle ABC, let D be the mid-point of BC, and AM be the altitude on BC. If the lengths of AB, BC and CA are in the ratio of 2:4:3, then the ratio of the lengths of BM and AD would be
1. Read the following passage and choose the answer that is closest to each of the questions that are based on the passage
The general idea of being fit is usually assumed to be exercising regularly and having a healthy diet. It’s true to some extent. But this is not always the case. People don’t realise that sleep also plays a crucial part when it comes to physical and mental well-being. It’s a restorative process, which shouldn’t be negotiable.
Hectic working hours, increasing stress levels, and an unhealthy lifestyle can cause irregular sleep patterns. These not only disturb one’s daily routine, but can also hamper one’s health, leading to lifestyle conditions like deranged cholesterol and diabetes. It’s a preconceived notion that cholesterol and diabetes are usually genetic diseases, and unhealthy eating patterns and lifestyle exacerbate them. It is not generally known that sleep deprivation can put a person at risk of both deranged cholesterol and diabetes.
Sleep helps your body and mind repair and recharge themselves. But things can go awry if one is sleep-deprived. Insomnia can generally make the body work abnormally. It affects the mental and physical abilities to prepare the body for the next day. It leaves the brain exhausted, affecting the natural functioning of the body.
Lack of sleep can lead to higher cholesterol and blood pressure. Sleep deprivation can lower levels of leptin, a hormone that stabilises metabolism and appetite. This can also lead to obesity, if left unchecked. Sleep deprivation has been found to raise levels of ghrelin, the hunger hormone, and decrease levels of leptin, the satiety hormone. That’s why people seek relief in foods that raise blood sugar. The American Academy of Sleep Medicine recommends that adults should get a minimum of seven to eight hours of sleep each night. Staying up late can lead to consuming unhealthy snacks and junk food high in carbs and sugar. All this increases the risk of Type 2 diabetes and is equally connected to obesity.
Just like any other routine, having a definite sleeping pattern can help a person maintain a cycle of rest and activity. Sleeping at the same time every day and waking up on time will encourage quality sleep. Proper relaxation of body and mind before sleeping means that one should keep the mobile phone aside for at least half an hour before bed. It helps if the room is dark and quiet. Plus, one can always read a good book or listen to soothing music which can lull one into deep sleep.
1. Being deprived of sleep can result in
(a) mental exhaustion.
(b) terminal illness.
(c) hunger satiation.
(d) metabolism loss
2. In what way does sleep contribute to a person’s well-being?
(a) By helping the body replenish its resources.
(b) By adding power and strength to the muscles.
(c) By increasing a person’s appetite.
(d) By regularising a person’s daily routine
3. In order to remain physically fit one must
(a) maintain a set sleep pattern.
(b) snack frequently.
(c) raise levels of ghrelin.
(d) read a good book every night
4. The main focus of the passage is on the
(a) perils of insomnia and irregular sleep patterns.
(b) stability of leptin and ghrelin in the human body.
(c) ill effects of junk food high in carbs and sugars.
(d) dangers of high level of cholesterol and diabetes
5. As per the passage which of these sentences is not correct?
(a) One’s body and mind should be properly relaxed to ensure good sleep.
(b) Insufficient sleep can lead to obesity.
(c) Irregular sleep patterns can result in health problems.
(d) Regular exercising and eating healthy food alone ensure fitness.
5. The objective of the passage is to
(a) provide medical input to the reader.
(b) advise the reader.
(c) present psychological insights to the reader.
(d) expose the reader to disinformation.
6. If you ask me to give you a rough estimate for the cost of the project, _________________ I would say thirty lakhs.
(a) off-the-mark
(b) off-the-grid
(c) off-the-cuff
(d) off-the-mike
7. The new car has disappointed its buyers in many ways, and good mileage is its only ______________.
(a) saving grace
(b) saving face
(c) saving praise
(d) saving case
8. Some big shots know how to escape the law even after they violate it. It is, however, the _______________ who are more often apprehended and punished.
(a) small fry
(b) tiny shots
(c) tiny fish
(d) small fish
9. It grieved me _______________ my friend’s serious illness.
(a) to hear regarding
(b) hearing regarding
(c) in hearing
(d) to hear of
10. _________________ have to label their ____________________ posts in order to bring about transparency and ________________ the interests of the customers.
(a) Influencers; promotional; safeguard
(b) Promoters; social media; incite
(c) Distributors; Facebook; multiply
(d) Advertisers; commercials; capture
The candidates are strongly recommended to download and study the previous year's question papers and preparation tips of the IPMAT examination. This would help them to enhance their IPMAT 2025 exam preparation.
Title | Download Link |
IPMAT 2019 Question Paper | Download Now |
IPMAT 2021 Sample Paper by Hitbullseye | Download Now |
IIM Indore IPMAT 2016 Sample Paper | Download Now |
IPM Aptitude Test Sample Paper | Download Now |
#41 in NIRF, NAAC ‘A’ Grade | 100% Placement, up to 30% meritorious scholarships | Last Date to Apply: 23rd June
NAAC A++ Grade, Ranked #4 India by NIRF 2024 | Accorded Institution of Eminence by MoE, Govt. of India | 19 LPA Highest CTC
IIM Indore conducted IPMAT 2024 on May 23, 2024.
Candidates must go through the IPMAT 2024 exam pattern and prepare accordingly to ace this exam.
Around 18000–20000 students are expected to appear in the IPMAT 2024 exam.
Yes, 240 can be considered a good score in IPMAT 2024.
The difficulty level of Indore IPMAT 2024 is moderate.
Hi aspirant,
IPMAT 2025 results have been partially announced .
You can also refer to the link given above for information on the same.
All the best!
Hello Disha
It's great that you're aiming for both SRCC (Shri Ram College of Commerce) through the CUET (Common University Entrance Test) and preparing for the IPMAT (Integrated Program in Management Aptitude Test) . Balancing preparation for both can be challenging, but with the right strategy and resources, it's entirely achievable.
For CUET, focusing on your domain subjects (such as Accountancy, Business Studies, Economics, Mathematics, and English) is crucial. Given your goal of entering SRCC, it's advisable to select domain subjects that align with your strengths and the SRCC cutoff trends. Experts emphasize the importance of mastering the NCERT Class 11 and 12 syllabus for CUET preparation.
Domain Subjects : Accountancy, Business Studies, Economics, Mathematics.
General Test : Logical Reasoning, Quantitative Aptitude, General Knowledge, Current Affairs.
Language Test : English. Career360.com (//Career360.com) or Kpclass can help you in providing all the study material and help.
Dear Candidate ,
The expected IPMAT 2025 cutoff for TAPMI's Integrated Program in Management ( IPM ) is anticipated to be around 60-75 marks , based on previous trends.
While TAPMI has not officially released cutoffs scores , data suggests that candidates scoring within this range have had favorable chances of selection .
HEY THERE!!!
In conclusion:
Light henna stains are normally acceptable for IPMAT. Just make sure your fingers are as clean as possible for identification purposes or biometric verification, and you should be permitted to sit the exam
Hi aspirant,
The IPMAT (Integrated Programme in Management Aptitude Test) is a national-level entrance exam offered by the Indian Institute of Management (IIM) Indore and IIM Rohtak for admission to their five-year integrated management programs.
Kindly refer to this link for the sample papers.
All the best!
A career as Marketing Director is also known as a marketing expert who is responsible for the overall marketing aspect of the company. He or she oversees plans and develops the company's budget. The marketing Director collaborates with the business team to plan and develop the marketing and branding strategies for the company's products or services.
A Business Development Executive identifies and pursues new business opportunities to drive company growth. They generate leads, build client relationships, develop sales strategies, and analyse market trends. Collaborating with internal teams, they aim to meet sales targets. With experience, they can advance to managerial roles, playing a key role in expanding the company’s market presence and revenue.
Content Marketing Specialists are also known as Content Specialists. They are responsible for crafting content, editing and developing it to meet the requirements of digital marketing campaigns. To ensure that the material created is consistent with the overall aims of a digital marketing campaign, content marketing specialists work closely with SEO and digital marketing professionals.
A Sales Manager leads a sales team to meet targets, formulates strategies, analyses performance, and monitors market trends. They typically hold a degree in management or related fields, with an MBA offering added value. The role often demands over 40 hours a week. Strong leadership, planning, and analytical skills are essential for success in this career.
A marketing manager is a person who oversees a company or product marketing. He or she can be in charge of multiple programmes or goods or can be in charge of one product. He or she is enthusiastic, organised, and very diligent in meeting financial constraints. He or she works with other team members to produce advertising campaigns and decides if a new product or service is marketable.
A Marketing manager plans and executes marketing initiatives to create demand for goods and services and increase consumer awareness of them. A marketing manager prevents unauthorised statements and informs the public that the business is doing everything to investigate and fix the line of products. Students can pursue an MBA in Marketing Management courses to become marketing managers.
An SEO Analyst is a web professional who is proficient in the implementation of SEO strategies to target more keywords to improve the reach of the content on search engines. He or she provides support to acquire the goals and success of the client’s campaigns.
Digital marketing is growing, diverse, and is covering a wide variety of career paths. Each job function aids in the development of effective digital marketing strategies and techniques. The aims and objectives of the individuals who opt for a career as a digital marketing executive are similar to those of a marketing professional: to build brand awareness, promote company services or products, and increase conversions. Individuals who opt for a career as Digital Marketing Executives, unlike traditional marketing companies, communicate effectively through suitable technology platforms.
Individuals who opt for a career as a business analyst look at how a company operates. He or she conducts research and analyses data to improve his or her knowledge about the company. This is required so that an individual can suggest the company strategies for improving their operations and processes.
In a business analyst job role a lot of analysis is done, things are learned from past mistakes and the successful strategies are enhanced further. A business analyst goes through real-world data in order to provide the most feasible solutions to an organisation. Students can pursue Business Analytics to become Business Analysts.
Ranked amongst top 3% universities globally (QS Rankings)
100% Placement Assurance | 6 Months Internship | 6 International and 8 National Industrial Visits | Last Date to Apply: 20th June
#41 in NIRF, NAAC ‘A’ Grade | 100% Placement, up to 30% meritorious scholarships | Last Date to Apply: 23rd June
NAAC A++ Accredited| Ranked #24 in University Category by NIRF
NAAC A++ Grade, Ranked #4 India by NIRF 2024 | Accorded Institution of Eminence by MoE, Govt. of India | 19 LPA Highest CTC
International tie-ups | project based learnings | Attractive Schorlaships | State of the art infrastructure | Applications Closing Soon!