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Top-notch CAT preparation strategies: solving important practice set questions for Top scores- Day 58

Top-notch CAT preparation strategies: solving important practice set questions for Top scores- Day 58

Edited By Irshad Anwar | Updated on Oct 13, 2023 11:58 AM IST | #CAT

Hello, CAT 2023 aspiring candidates, For MBA admissions from 2023- 2025, the CAT exam 2023 has been scheduled for November 26. In this CAT 2023 60-day preparation guide series of Careers360, we will discuss the strategies for days 58, 59, and 60 that can help you prepare well and crack the CAT entrance test 2023. The exam date is quickly approaching at this point. To practice, you can download CAT Sample Paper PDF and take all three CAT mock tests for free 2023. Solved CAT Mock Test Free 2023

Candidates must download the best free CAT mock test and complete the CAT online practice test series from all three subjects to get the best idea of what the CAT exam requirements are in 2023. This free online practice test has in-depth solutions and is based on the 57 days of lessons.

CAT Mock Test Free 2023

One of the best ways to get ready is to use CAT sample papers. On the official website, iimcat.ac.in, IIM Bangalore has activated the official CAT 2023 mock test link in online mode. The CAT exam sample paper will offer CAT aspirants insights that aid in creating an efficient CAT preparation plan, just like practice CAT Mock Test and previous CAT questions. The CAT sample papers give candidates hands-on experience with the types of questions that will be asked as well as the difficulty level and marking scheme because they are created with past question trends and the current exam pattern. Solve as many CAT exam model papers as you can if you want to score higher than 99 percent in CAT 2023.

CAT Mock Test Free 2023 - Practice set 1

Sample Paper- 1

General Instructions:

Total Time of the examination is 120 minutes.

1697170638331

This Exam is conducted on Sectional Timing

Section: Verbal Ability And Reading Comprehension


Passage (Q1- Q5):

Russo and Parco; Parco and Russo. Throughout the mediaeval period, this duo has been acclaimed as the perfect example of artistic rivalry. In Russo and Parco, Chang follows Miang in proposing that the interaction between Parco and Russo should be seen as a dynamic game rather than a static conflict of artistic polarities. Chang employs the metaphor of chess, arguing that the game represents the artists’ exchange as “a competitive rivalry and a complex temporality” that can be viewed both as a linear process and a simultaneous structure. But this metaphor of competitive sport, however complex and intellectually rich, is misleading. The two artists were engaged not just in competition (even friendly competition) but also in friendly dialogue. The two men were more than rivals: they were colleagues, critics, teachers, and occasional friends. A better model, though perhaps one with less flash, is that of a simple conversation, with all the rich variation and shifts in motivation and tone that are possible. Parco’s Large Nude in a Red Armchair marks the extremes of the artist’s combativeness towards Russo. The painting is a clear parody of Russo’s earlier "Odalisque with a Tambourine." The composition of the figures is strikingly similar: a woman lounges in an armchair at the centre of the painting, her arm raised above her head, and decorative wallpaper behind her. Both paintings feature vivid colour contrasts, with green wallpaper, vivid reds, glaring yellows, and rich browns. But Parco’s painting, finished in 1929, mocks the achievements of Russo’s earlier work. The sensuous, rich mood of Russo’s painting has been transformed in Parco’s work into something harsh and grotesque. The other extreme of the dialogue between the two artists can be seen in Parco’s “Woman with Yellow Hair" and Russo’s response, "The Dream." The exchange begins Careers360 with Parco’s work in their middle age. The painting depicts a woman asleep in her arms, resting on a table. She is full, rich, warm, and curved, her head and arms forming a graceful arabesque. This image seems a direct attempt to master Russo’s style and to suggest to the older artist new directions for his work. While there may well be an edge of competitiveness to the painting, a sense that Parco was demonstrating his ability to do Russo’s work, it remains in large part a helpful hint. Russo, nearly a decade later, continues the conversation in a similar tone. In "The Dream of the Admirer," he proposes a revision of Parco’s work. Again, a woman lies asleep on a table, her arm tucked beneath her head. Russo accepts Parco’s basic suggestions for his style: sinuous curves, volumes, and shocking uses of colour to express an effect. But Russo also modifies the earlier work significantly. Colour is no longer rigidly tied to form, as bits of fuchsia seep outside the thick black line marking the outline of the table and the patch of yellow on the woman’s blouse refuses to be contained by the drawn line. Russo uses Parco’s same palette of red, purple, white, black, and yellow to create this revision, editing out only the garish green, as if to chide Parco for the choice. The brilliant interplay of colours in Russo’s work is far more sophisticated and subtle than that offered by Parco. “Thank you,” Russo seems to be saying, “but you missed a few spots.”

Q1. The passage is about to

  1. discuss the rivalry of the two best painters at a time
  2. assess the theory of the writer and endorse a revision
  3. compare the selected masterpiece of work of two great painters
  4. show the greatness of Russo over Parco
  5. show Russo and Parco’s friendship and rivalry altogether
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Ans: (B)

(A) is incorrect. (Author did not choose the best of them)

(B) The author discusses Chang and Miang’s metaphor (“a dynamic game”), calls it

misleading and proposes an expansion beyond the competitive aspect.

(C) Yes, true but not the main point discussed.

(D) and (E) are both distortions. (Not the main point)

Q2. According to the passage, which of the following seems to be the best statement?

  1. Artistic rivalries are like India and Pakistan rivalry.
  2. To employ multiple genres in painting demonstrate Artistic mastery in a best
  3. Artists can be funny sometimes.
  4. Artistic rivalries can be reciprocally healthy.
  5. Artistic rivalries never end.
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Ans: (D)

The author expresses the point at the end of the first paragraph by suggesting that the

rivalry between Parco and Russo was more of a dialogue or exchange. This rivalry

improved their work. So, option D most suitable answer.

Q3. In Parco’s "Woman with Yellow Hair," which of the following best describes Woman with Yellow Hair?

  1. It was the humiliation of a work by Russo.
  2. (B) A rich woman with yellow-coloured hair.
  3. (C) Its colour palette was greater than that of The Dream.
  4. (D) It was to show the greatness of Parco over Russo.
  5. (E) Yellow was the favourite colour of women at that time.
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Ans: (C)

In the last paragraph, the passage states that Russo used the same palette in his work

but omitted the green.

(A), (D), and (E) are incorrect because they are out of context and do not make any

sense here.

(B) is backwards — the passage states that Russo’s response, as opposed to Parco’s

work, did not rigidly tie colour to form.

Q4. The passage indicates that

  1. "Long yellow hair was a symbol of being rich and calm."
  2. Russo had an affair with a Woman with Yellow Hair
  3. Russo and Parco were childhood friends.
  4. Russo and Parco praise each other’s work.
  5. Russo was older than Parco

Ans: (E)

In the third paragraph, the author refers to Russo as an older artist.

Q5. Which of the following, had it occurred during the artists’ lifetimes, would further support the author’s thesis?

  1. A joint exhibition of the two artists’ work.
  2. A radio broadcast of the two artists discussing painting.
  3. A movie that dramatised the competition between the two artists.
  4. A play that depicted the two artists playing chess.
  5. A painting of the two artists.

Ans: (B)

The author’s point was that the rivalry was more of a dialogue than a competition.

(A) and (E) are not correct because those choices do not say anything about the nature

of the rivalry, and no more can be assumed.

(C) is wrong because the author’s point was that their relationship was more than a

competition.

(D) misconstrues the metaphor that the author rejects.

Passage (Q6- Q10):

In John D’Emilio’s essay “Capitalism and Gay Identity,” he argues that the emergence of industrial capitalism led to new opportunities for “free labourers” in the United States, leading to various beneficial changes in social conditions. There are two overarching themes that emerge from D’Emilio’s argument about the effects of the onset of industrial capitalism: the new abundance of independence, and the choice for “free labourers." He implies throughout that these—independence and choice—are the distinct new markers of the social conditions resulting from this economic shift. Careers360 D’Emilio argues that capitalism empowers labourers as “free” in the sense that they are free to look for jobs and to negotiate contracts and terms of labour. D’Emilio’s critics suggest that he largely sidesteps the problems that confound free labour ideology and limit the ability of workers to openly negotiate contracts with employers and accept or reject the conditions offered. The “contract negotiations” cited as a sign of freedom by D’Emilio are often hardly negotiations at all but rather highly exploitative arrangements that workers have little ability to affect. From the first Lowell Girls to the modern third-world garment works described by Enloe’s “Blue Jeans and Bankers,” it is clear that for many—particularly women, minorities, and immigrants—free labour has hardly been free at all. Such critics also suggest that D’Emilio misrepresents the historical and continued significance of the home. The shift from a home-based to an industrial economy—though indeed very drastic—was hardly as absolute as D’Emilio suggests. Indeed, from nannying to housekeeping to even the "home-based jobs” described in “Blue Jeans and Bankers,” labour is still a very active part of the home even today. In the essay “The Approaching Obsolescence of Housework: A Working-Class Perspective,” Davis spends a great deal of time discussing the continuation of labour in the home in stark contrast to the assertions of D’Emilio. Where D’Emilio argues that industrial capitalism equated to freedom from the home, Davis argues that it equated to thickening the bars that caged housewives to the home as productive and reproductive labour split further and more distinctly apart. Davis argues that women “were the losers in a double sense: as their traditional jobs were usurped by the burgeoning factories, the entire economy moved away from the home, leaving many women largely bereft of significant economic roles.”

Q6. The passage can be best described as:

  1. A theory is discussed and supported by additional research.
  2. A theory which was layered by a long speech against it is provided.
  3. A theory is given, which is supported by a collection of opinions that impugn it.
  4. Theory for which the author’s credentials are questioned.
  5. A theory is given that does not make any sense.

Ans: (C)

After the theory is described that is followed by some studies and opinions that disagree

with some part of it or the whole.

(A) is incorrect because no additional support is provided.

(B) is incorrect, as the criticisms are not a screed.

(D) is incorrect because it is not the author’s credentials that are questioned.

(E) is wrong - there is no ridicule.

Q7. In the passage, one argument opposes D’Emilio’s theory. That argument is based on

  1. socialism.
  2. Identity
  3. fanaticism
  4. semantics
  5. Gender Inequality

Ans: (D)

In the second paragraph, D’Emilio’s critics question his use of the word "free."

Q8. The author describes the Lowell Girls in order to

  1. illustrate disintegrated women’s economic position
  2. challenge the importance of home-based economies
  3. deny the arguments of the author’s critics
  4. contrast their position to that of third-world garment workers
  5. support the assertion ‘Workers’ autonomy is more myth than reality’

Ans: (E)

The Lowell Girls are mentioned to show that historically free labour has hardly been free at all. (A) is incorrect — that is the subject of the last paragraph but does not concern the Lowell Girls. (B) is incorrect — that is the subject of the third paragraph but does not concern the Lowell Girls. The answer must come from the part of the passage referenced. (C) is backwards — this argument is put forth by D’Emlio’s critics. (D) is a distortion, the reference is to show how historically normal this situation was, not to contrast two supposedly parallel groups of unempowered workers

Q9. According to the passage, Davis supported the

  1. Independence and choice are outcomes of industrial capitalism.
  2. Minorities have no freedom.
  3. People without economic roles are not benefited.
  4. Home-based jobs do not contribute significantly to the overall economy.
  5. Housewives should be paid for their domestic work.

Ans: (C)

The answer has to be something that must follow from the discussion of Davis in the last

paragraph, not something that he or she could or would likely agree with.

(C) is correct because Davis argues that women were the losers in a double sense,

leaving many women largely bereft of significant economic roles. If being “bereft” of an

economic role makes one a “loser,” it is not going too far (in fact, it is less extreme) to say

that people without economic roles are disadvantaged.

Q10. Suggest the best title for the passage from the given options

  1. Industrial Capitalism and free labour
  2. “Free Labor”: A Rejection of D’Emilio’s Theory
  3. Women’s Sacrifices for Industrial Capitalism
  4. Industrial Capitalism and Minorities

Ans: (C)

A “best title” question asks for the main point. The point of this passage was to highlight

trenchant criticisms of D’Emilio’s work — the lack of any rebuttal of these points

indicates that the author sympathises with them. (A), (D), and (E) are incorrect because

They ignore that the passage concerns scholarly opinions rather than the history itself.

(B) is incorrect, as no reconciliation is attempted. Additionally, (E) is closer to D’Emilio’s

view than the author’s.

Passage (Q11-Q13):

Most mental health disorders and cases of drug abuse tend to diminish a person’s ability to recognise other people’s feelings. A recent study in Norway suggests, however, that these effects can be bolstered by a nasal spray puff of the brain hormone oxytocin, which is known to increase feelings of calm and social bonding. Although oxytocin is already prescribed for certain disorders that affect social function, such as autism, these treatments are often tried in isolated cases, leaving the overall effects of the drug without evaluation. The Norwegian experiment focused on 40 students, each of whom was given either a controlled dose of salt water or the drug oxytocin. After the nasal dose, the students were shown faces with happy, angry, or neutral expressions, some of which were subtler than others. The researchers found that after a nasal spray dose of oxytocin, the the student's awareness of the expressions was intensified. Further, the experiment showed that oxytocin had the greatest effect on those who were least able to evaluate emotions properly when given the control. Although the results of this study seem promising, Leknes, the lead scientist in the investigation, cautions that the hormone would not be a “cure-all” for mental illness or drug addiction. Rather, he suggests, the hormone might help some individuals better interpret the social cues from the world around them.

Q11. The author of the passage would most likely agree with which of the following statements about the brain hormone oxytocin?

  1. Further evaluation is required to see the overall performance of the brain hormone oxytocin.
  2. In the coming time, it will be a useful tool to treat mental illness and drug addiction.
  3. It is not useful for socialised people.
  4. The effects of the brain hormone oxytocin are unknown.
  5. Its effectiveness is increased when used via nasal spray.

Ans: (A)

In the first paragraph of the passage, it was described that oxytocin treatments are often

tried in isolated cases and that the overall effects are unknown. The passage then

describes a small study that seems promising but makes no definitive claims. Therefore,

it is likely that the author would agree that the effects of oxytocin require further

evaluation.

Q12. Which of the following conclusions about the nasal spray study of oxytocin is Supported?

  1. The results are not acceptable as the sample size is very small.
  2. The nasal spray of oxytocin makes students calm and socialised.
  3. Many students were not able to recognise the expressions shown to them when a controlled dose of salt water was given.
  4. The students who might need oxytocin the most are the ones who are responsive to the hormone.
  5. The use of oxytocin should be banned.

Ans: (D)

According to the passage, the experiment revealed that oxytocin had the greatest effect

on those who were least able to properly evaluate emotions when given control. Thus,

you can infer that those with the least ability to naturally infer emotions, e.g., the ones

who might need it most, reaped the greatest benefits from the hormone.

Q13. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage in the context of the Norwegian study on oxytocin?

  1. The study suggested that oxytocin made students more able to differentiate faces from one another.
  2. Leknes was leading the investigation.
  3. A controlled dose of salt water is the criteria (measurable quantity) for a normal student's ability to distinguish facial expressions.
  4. Subjects in the study were shown happy, angry, or neutral expressions.
  5. Oxytocin had an adverse effect on health.

Ans: (A)

The experiment was related to the student's ability to recognise emotions from facial

expressions, not their ability to tell faces apart.

Passage (Q14- Q18):

Often taking a prominent position over a whiteboard or across a wall, timelines are one of the most commonplace classroom tools used to teach history. They present a concise chronology with dates and events listed in a linear narrative, forming a skeletal story of history. Despite their usefulness in allowing students to gain a cursory knowledge of many key moments in the past, their bare-bones, fact-centred structure is symptomatic of the myopic character of curricula that emphasise the what, when, and who and eclipse the significance of why and how. In the United States, by far the most common brand and format of the timeline are the World Almanac for Kids US History Timeline—a banner set of eight horizontal panels, each with eight events, beginning with Columbus’s voyage in 1492 and ending with Clinton’s election in 1993. This timeline has photos accompanying it—about 5–6 per panel—next to most of the dates, and below each date is a 1–2 line description of an event that took place in that year. What immediately commands one’s attention when looking at this timeline are the dates themselves. Bolder and more prominently placed than anything else, they seem implied to be the most important feature of the timeline—even more so than the events’ descriptions. The way the dates line up in perfect order presents the viewer with a rigid historical narrative, complete with a beginning and an end. To analyse any particular timeline, it is important to recognise what the timeline expresses implicitly. The first implicit message transmitted by the World Almanac for Kids US History Timeline is that each event listed on the timeline’s face must hold some kind of particular historical significance to qualify as one of only 64 pieces of American history presented, though no event’s entry gives even a vague explanation as to why it merits this. The second message the timeline conveys, simply by hanging in the classroom, is that this version of history is an “official” one. Third, each of these events happened totally independently of the other. Fourth, in most years, only one significant event occurred in any given year. Finally, American history is entirely made up of wars and minor battles, punctuated by the occasional presidential election and technological innovation. Now, certainly, one can easily surmise that the timeline is not conscious of these implications, and instead assumes that the viewer will automatically acknowledge that it is not a comprehensive history but rather a simple summary of events through time. The danger of using the timeline as a teaching tool, of course, lies squarely in that assumption.

Q14. The author makes a conclusion, which is?

  1. Dates have no importance in history.
  2. Historical events are autonomous and do not relate to other events.
  3. Implied messages or information are as important as concrete information.
  4. Without women and minorities, a study of American history is incomplete.
  5. American history is described as a combination of successive events.

Ans: (C)

The last paragraph devotes itself to highlighting the problematic implicit messages of timelines.

Q15. The author’s thinking (attitude) about the timelines can be best illustrated as

  1. Superiority and rude
  2. tolerant and confused
  3. dishonest and resigned
  4. Circumspect and apocalyptic
  5. negative and smug

Ans: (D)

Essentially, this question tests vocabulary. The point of the passage is the problems with timelines, and the ending is a warning—"portentous" can mean “ominously significant.”

Q16. According to the passage, all are correct, EXCEPT:

  1. In American history, there are more than 64 important events.
  2. Prominent graphic positions are important.
  3. Timelines are important because of their positive uses.
  4. Timelines have no effectiveness.
  5. Unofficial histories have merit.

Ans: (D)

The last paragraph discusses the negative implicit—or subliminal — issues with timelines. A, B, C, and E are correct as discussed in the passage.

Q17. Problems with timelines are discussed in the passage. Which of the following is a problem

  1. its prominent uses in classrooms
  2. if the context is not given
  3. their infinite nature
  4. factual inaccuracy of timeline
  5. Inclusion of pictures with timeline

Ans: (B)

In the last paragraph, an implicit flaw listed is that the events are presented as independent and without context.

Q18. What word can substitute for the word ‘myopic’ in the context of the passage?

  1. unlearned
  2. racist
  3. dull
  4. astigmatic
  5. mordant

Ans: (C)

Myopic means “near-sighted,” and the author employs it to describe the inability of

some curricula to see the big picture. Similarly, purblind means “partially blind or

deficient in understanding.”

Q19- 20: Para-Summary

Looking for someone ‘better’ may be tempted today: with advertising finding its way into every nook and cranny of our consciousness, we are invited to hate what we love, need what we can’t have, and envy that which is not worth pursuing. The internet and its sophisticated ability to harvest and market desire fuel a comparative mindset where our ability to value what we have is constantly held up to the light of what we could have. This invites a continual examination of ourselves and our partners to see if we are failing to live the kind of life we might have, if only.

19. The passage seeks to

  1. argue that marriage as an institution should be re-evaluated since our expectations from marriage have changed over time.
  2. describe the role of media in increasing dissatisfaction with marriage.
  3. Explain why people are more likely to experience regret in marriage.
  4. Explain how the shift of focus to the self has led to the tendency of re-examining one’s personal fulfilment in marriage.

Ans: (d)

The paragraph indicates one’s desire for and requirement for marriage. Option (d) is best suited.

Q20. What is the author saying about the topic (Argument)

  1. People are more likely to examine their marital relationships due to advertising and the internet fueling our desire for better things.
  2. People tend to examine their marital relationship more often because it is now linked to individual goals.
  3. People tend to experience regret in marriage if the relationship sets a limit on their happiness and personal growth.
  4. The thought of finding someone better can burden a romantic relationship and lead to regret.

Ans: (b)

People nowadays see their marriage as fulfilling their individual goals or not, as discussed by the author.

Q21. Para summary

Although economic growth and development are similar in meaning, they have some essential differences. Economic growth refers to the increasing ability of a nation to produce more goods and services. Economic development basically implies that individuals in that nation will be better off and takes into account changes in economic and social structures that will reduce or eliminate poverty. Economic development can be measured in a number of different ways, including the Human Development Index, a gender measure, the human poverty index, and a human freedom index. The style of the passage is

(a) Narrative (b) Descriptive (c) Analytical (d) Argumentative

Ans: (b)

Description is given about the economic growth and development.

Q22. [Para jumbled]: Arrange the sentences sequentially

  1. So we shouldn't be too hard on Winston when he occasionally makes it too
  2. For example, there are researchers who believe that a child's attachment to his mother in infancy sets the pattern for all his later relationships.
  3. If his mother gave him all the love and attention he desired, he'll do well in life because he has learned to trust people.
  4. It's an error made by almost all developmental psychologists
  5. This assumption is built into most theories of personality development.
  6. The error is the assumption that what a child learns in his home environment is automatically carried along with him to other settings.

a) abcdef b) fedabc c) dafebc d) dafecb

Ans: [c]

This is one of those tough ones where nothing seems to make sense, but if you remember the theory part, then it shouldn't be that difficult. This para jumble is a perfect example of why you should not try too hard to find a starting sentence. The para jumbles can be picked up anywhere in a longer paragraph. Sentence 'e' says 'this assumption' which is coming straight from 'f' making 'fe' concomitant. There are still two more answer options after the one that has been eliminated. Some of you might think "df' or 'fd' should be concomitant, but that should not be too much of a problem as neither is there in any answer choice. Scanning should take you to 'makes it too' of 'a and you need to ask, "What is "it"?" "It" is the 'error made by almost all development psychologists'(d) which 'Winston' also makes. So 'da' is also concomitant. The 'his' of 'c' is 'a child' of 'b', and so 'bc'. The "for example' of 'b' is an example of 'e'. Hence answer choice "c".

Q23. [Para jumbled]: Arrange the sentences sequentially

  1. And perhaps modified or abandoned, when they start to have a life outside the home
  2. Children seem to know instinctively that patterns of behaviour acquired at home must be cautiously tested
  3. It can be seen as early as age three
  4. The child quickly learns that crying brings one response from Mummy, but quite a different one from the other children at the day-care centre
  5. The influence of peers doesn't begin in the teenage years

a) abcde b) bacde c) badec d) baced

Ans: [c]

The question you need to ask, after scanning, is - What is 'modified or abandoned' in

"a"? The answer is 'patterns of behaviour" of "b," so "ba" is concomitant. The other

question is - What is this 'it' that 'can be seen as early as age three (c)? The answer is

'influence of peers' in 'e'; so "ec.. This straight away gives us the answer as "c".

Q24. [Para jumbled]: Arrange the sentences sequentially

  1. Losers have not been excluded, but given places in government, binding them into the system to prevent future rebellion.
  2. In recent times, almost all of Africa's nastiest wars have ended in local deals.
  3. Only in a few cases has a rebel or deposed head of state been punished.
  4. Victors have shown a reluctance to punish.

a) bdac b) bacd c) bcad d) bdca

Ans: [a]

Here is something that can teach you something important about para jumbles in

particular and writing in general. You'll notice that 'c' is opposite to the other three

sentences; while 'a', 'b', and 'd' are talking about rebels not being punished, etc. 'c' says

that only a few have been punished. That means that 'c' should stand alone, and in this

case, it should be the last. Look at the answer choices, and you have found your answer.

Section: Logical Reasoning and Data Interpretation

Passage: (Q25- Q29) These questions are based on the table, which gives the distribution of recognised educational institutions in a few states in India.

1697170639056

Q25. If all the given states are arranged in ascending order by the total number of primary and middle schools, then which state is fourth from the last?

(A) Bihar (B) Andhra Pradesh (C) Kerala (D) Maharashtra

Q26. A state in which the number of primary schools is greater than the number of high

schools and the number of colleges for professional education is more than half that of colleges for general education is said to have a good educational infrastructure. How many states have a good educational infrastructure?

(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3

Q27. In how many states is the number of high schools greater than the number of colleges for general education by at least 300%?

(A) 15 (B) 14 (C) 11 (D) None of these

Q28. In all the states in which the number of primary schools is more than 50,000, the respective state governments own 50% of these primary schools. Find the least number of such states that should be clubbed together so that the total number of primary schools owned by the state governments of the states is more than 1,00,000.

(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5

Q29. Which state has the largest difference between the total number of primary and middle schools as compared to the number of deemed universities?

(A) Bihar (B) Madhya Pradesh (C) Andhra Pradesh (D) Uttar Pradesh


Answers and Solutions: (Q25-Q29)

25. [D], As the question asks for the state ranked 4th from the last after arranging the

given states in ascending order, instead of arranging them in ascending order first and

then finding the answer, the question can be easily answered by arranging the given

states in descending order and finding the fourth state ranked from the top.

By observation, Uttar Pradesh has the highest number of primary schools as well as

middle schools. Similarly, Madhya Pradesh is in the second position with a total of

87,620. Andhra Pradesh is in the third position at 72,721, whereas the state ranked

fourth in Maharashtra with 70,545

26. [A] By observation, in all the given states, the number of primary schools is greater

than the number of high schools. Observing the given data, in none of the states is the

number of professional colleges greater than half that of the colleges of general

education.

27. [A] As the number of high schools is to be greater than the number of colleges of

general education by more than 300%, they should be at least four times the number of

colleges of general education. By observation, in all the states, the number of high

schools is greater than the number of general education colleges by at least four times.

28. [B] By observation, Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, and Andhra Pradesh account for

more than 2,00,000 schools. As the respective state governments own 50% of these

schools, these three states must be clubbed together for the state governments to have

more than 1,00,000 schools. Choice (B)

29. [D] Observing the given data, Uttar Pradesh has the highest number of primary and

middle schools, whereas in all cases, the number of deemed universities is negligible (or

very small) when compared to the number of schools. The difference will therefore be

greatest for Uttar Pradesh.

Passage (Q30- Q33):

A business school in north India has a total of 2400 students in the first and second years combined, with foreign students accounting for 32.5% of it. All students had to choose one speciality among marketing, finance, operations, and systems. The ratio of the students in marketing, finance, operations, and systems in the two years together is 2:3:4:3 respectively. Among students who have opted for marketing, 33.5% are foreigners. The ratio of first- and second-year students among students who opted for finance, operations, and systems is 9:11, 11:9 and 3:2 respectively. The total number of students in the second year is 45% of the total number of students in the school.

Q30. What percentage of the students who opted for marketing as a specialisation is in the second year?

(A) 28.5 (B) 32.0 (C) 35.0 (D) 37.5

Q31. What is the maximum percentage of foreigners among students who have opted for operations?

(A) 72 (B) 75.5 (C) 80.75 (D) None of these

Q32. The difference between the total number of Indian students and the total number of second-year students in the school is

(A) 480 (B) 540 (C) 660 (D) 720

Q33. If the number of foreigners among students who opted for finance, operations, and systems is in the ratio of 3:5:9, then the number of Indian students who have opted for operations is

(A) 540 (B) 570 (C) 610 (D) 640

Solution (Q30-33)

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30. [D]

400/ 150 × 100 = 37.5% of the students who opted for marketing as a

specialisation are in their second year.

31. [C]

The maximum percentage would be when all the foreign students other than those in marketing are in operations. i.e., 780 – 134 = 646. The required percentage = 800/ 646 × 100 = 80.75%

32. [B]

The total number of Indian students is 1620. The total number of ΙΙnd year students is 1080. The difference = 1620 – 1080 = 540

33. [C]

The number of foreign students in operations = 17/ 5 × 646 = 190 The number of Indian students in operations is 800 – 190 = 610

Passage (Q34- 37):

Vijay Kalia bought four cars from four different companies – Maruti, Hyundai, Nissan, and Chevrolet – for his four daughters. The four cars were the Jazz, City, Swift, and Micra, each from exactly one of the given companies. When he bought the cars, the salesperson guaranteed a mileage (in miles/litre) of – 24, 20, 32, and 36 – given for the Jazz, City, Swift, and Micra, respectively. After one month, two of these cars showed a mileage lower than what the salesperson had guaranteed. One of these two cars was a product of either Maruti or Hyundai, for which the mileage was half of what was guaranteed by the salesperson. The other was a product of either Nissan or Chevrolet, for which the mileage was 3/4th of what was guaranteed by the salesperson. For the two remaining cars, the mileage was the same as what had been initially guaranteed by the salesperson.

Q34. If Vijay Kalia got the maximum possible average mileage from all four cars, then which of the following statements would necessarily be true?

  1. Jazz is a product of either Maruti or Hyundai.
  2. The city is the product of either Maruti or Hyundai.
  3. Swift gave lower mileage than what was guaranteed.
  4. Micra did not give a mileage lower than what was guaranteed.

a. I & II b. II & IV c. I & III d. III & IV

Q35. If the average mileage of all four cars is 22.75 miles/litre, then what can be said regarding the two statements?

  1. The city is the product of either Nissan or Chevrolet.
  2. Micra did not give the mileage lower than what was guaranteed.
  1. a. At least one of the statements is false.
  2. b. At most one of the statements is true.
  3. c. Both statements can be false at the same time.
  4. d. Both statements can never be true at the same time.

Q36. What could be the minimum average mileage of all four cars after one month?

a. 21.75 b. 22.75 c. 20.25 d. 21.50

Q37. If the average mileage of all four cars is 23.5 miles/litre, then what is the difference between the mileage of the Swift and that of the City?

a. 10 b. 12 c. 14 d. 16

Answer and Solution: (Q34-Q37)

1697170638727

34. [B]

For maximum mileage, we will refer to case 11, which is made by either Maruti or Hyundai. The Jazz is made by either Nissan or Chevrolet. Swift and Micra will have the same mileage as stated.

35. [C]

Refer to cases 6 and 7.

36. [D]

37. [C]

Refer case 8, Hence Ans 14.

Passage (Q38-41)

The pie chart gives the distribution of runs scored by all five Indian batsmen in a one-day international match as a percentage of the total runs scored by the five batsmen. The table gives the distribution of the fours (4’s) and sixes (6’s) scored by each of the batsmen as a percentage of the total 4’s and total 6’s, respectively, scored by all of them. India’s total score is the sum of the scores made by these batsmen and the extras, which were numerically equal to the runs scored in sixes (6’s) by these batsmen. It is also known that none of the batsmen made a double century (200 or more runs) in the match.

1697170638869

Q38. The number of 4’s scored by the Indian batsmen was at least

(A) 20 (B) 25 (C) 50 (D) None of these

Q39. Which of the following cannot be India's score in the match?

(A) 405 (B) 435 (C) 250 (D) 560

Q40. The player who scored the maximum percentage of his runs through 4’s and 6’s was

(A) Rohit (B) Dhawan (C) Yuvraj (D) cannot be determined

Q41. If runs can be scored only through 1’s, 2’s, 4’s and 6’s, the minimum number of balls faced by Yuvraj was

(A) 18 (B) 21 (C) 28 (D) 26

Answers and Solutions (Q38- Q41)

It is a given that India’s score was the sum of the scores of the batsmen and the extras. Looking at the number of 6's, it can be seen that if Rohit had scored one six, all players together would have scored five 6's; if Rohit had scored two 6's, all players together would have scored tens 6's; and so on. Similarly, Kohli or Dhawan would have scored at least two 4’s each (as the fours scored, as a percentage of the total 4’s scored by all the players, is a multiple of four for each player). The next possible case is that they scored four 4’s each. Now if Dhawan has scored the minimum possible number of 4’s and 6’s, i.e. two and one respectively, he would have scored at least 8 + 6 = 14 runs, in which case Yuvraj, who scored 32.8% of the runs scored by all the five, would have scored 82 runs. Now, for Dhawan’s score of 15, 16, 17, etc., we would not get integer values for scores made by others, so Dhawan’s score can only be 14, 21, or 28. For the next possible value of Dhawan’s score (i.e 35), the runs scored by Yuvraj would exceed 200. ∴ Total 4’s scored by Indian batsmen is at least 25 and the total 6’s scored by Indian batsmen is at least five. With Dhawan’s score as 14, the score of other players would be as follows.

Rohit − 70

Kohli − 56

Yuvraj – 82 and Dhoni – 28 and India’s total score = 70 + 56 + 14 + 82 + 28 + 30 = 280 (the extras are 30 as India scored five 6’s and the runs through extras and those through 6’s are numerically equal).

For Dhawan’s score of 21(2 × 4 + 1 × 6 + 7 or 2 × 4 + 2 × 6 + 1), the scores of the others

would be 105, 84, 123, and 42, and India’s score would be 405 or 435 depending on the

number of sixers.

For Dhawan’s score of 28 (2 × 4 + 1 × 6 + 14 or 2 × 4 + 2 × 6 + 8 or 4 × 4 + 2 × 6 or 4 × 4

+ 1 × 6 + 6) India’s total score would be 530 or 560, depending on the number of sixes

scored by the Indian batsmen.

38. Indian batsmen scored at least 25 fours. Choice (B)

39. India’s score cannot be 250. Choice (C)

40.. Dhawan scored the maximum percentage of his runs on 4’s and 6’s. Choice (B)

41. For Yuvraj to face the minimum number of balls, he should have scored 82 runs.

Yuvraj scored 82 runs with eleven 4’s and two 6’s i.e. 44 + 12 = 56 runs in 13 balls. Now

all of the remaining 26 runs could be scored in 2’s, i.e., he would have faced at least 13

more balls. ∴ he would have played at least 13 + 13 = 26 balls. Choice (D)

Passage (Q42-44)

Each of – S, T, U, V, W, X, Y, and Z lives on a different floor of an apartment. (The ground floor is named the first floor; the floor above the ground floor is named the second floor, and so on.) The following information is known about them. T lives on an even-numbered floor. There are exactly four floors between T’s floor and Z’s floor. S and W do not live on consecutive floors. Y lives immediately below U’s floor and above V’s floor. V lives on an odd-numbered floor but is not on the first floor. The number of floors between V’s floor and X’s floor is equal to the number of floors between W’s floor and S’s floor. The number of floors between S’s floor and X’s floor is not less than one. There are at least two floors above and at least two floors below the floor on which Z lives.

Q42. Three of the following four are alike in a certain way based on the given information and so form a group. Find the one that does not belong to that group.

(A) T, V (B) Z, U (C) X, W (D) X, U

Q43. How many floors are there between U’s floor and X’s floor?

(A) Two (B) Three (C) Four (D) One

Q44. Who lives just above S’s floor?

(A) Z (B) Y (C) X (D) V


Answers and Solutions:

Given that T lives on an even-numbered floor. There are exactly four floors between T’s floor and Z’s floor. There are at least two floors above and below the one on which Z lives. Hence, T lives on the top floor, and Z lives on the third floor. Given, Y lives just below U’s floor and above V’s floor. V lives on an odd-numbered floor, which is not the first floor. Hence, the only possibility is that U lives on the seventh floor, Y lives on the sixth floor, and V lives on the fifth floor. Given that the number of floors between V’s floor and X’s floor is equal to the number of floors between W’s floor and S’s floor. S and W do not live on consecutive floors. The number of floors between S’s floor and X’s floor is not less than one. Hence, S, X, and W live on the fourth, second, and first floors, respectively

∴ The floor arrangement is as shown below.

1697170638964

42. Except for (Z, U), the remaining pairs live on even and odd-numbered floors. Choice (B)

43. There are four floors. Choice (C)

44. V lives just above S’s floor. Choice (D)

Section: Quantitative Aptitude

Q45. The sum of the two numbers is 25, and their geometric mean is 30% lower than the greater of the two. Find the ratio of the numbers.

(a) 4: 1 (b) 3: 7 (c) 7: 10 (d) 49: 100

Ans: [d]

Let the numbers be a and b. (b> a)

So, a+ b= 25; GM = 70% of b = 0.7b

Also, a x b = (0.7b)2 = 0.49b2

a: b = 49: 100

Q46. If log a, log b, and log c are in AP, then a2 , b2, and c2 are in

(a) AP (b) GP (c) HP (d) None of these

Ans: [d]

Since log a, log b, log c are in AP, then

log b – log a = log c – log b

⇒2 log b = log c + log a

⇒ log b2 = log ac

⇒ b2 = ac

So, a. b, c are in GP.

Also, a2, b2 and c2 must be in GP.

Q47. The average salary of the non-officer staff in an office is Rs 32000 per month. The average salary of officers is Rs 68000. If the salary of non-officer staff is increased by 10% and that of officers is increased by 15%. If the ratio of officers to non-officer staff is 1:4. Find the average percentage change in salaries for all employees.

(a) 12.5% (b) 10% (c) 11.8% (d) 10.5%

Ans: [c]

Let officers there are 1, and non-officers are 4.

Average change in salaries of officers = 15% of 68000 = 10200

Average change in salaries of non-officers = 10% of 32000 = 3200

Net increase in total salary = 1x 10200 + 4x 3200 = 23000

Total Previous salary = 1x 68000 + 4x 32000 = 196000

Average of all = 196000/5 = 39200

Average change = 4600

Percentage average change = (4600/39200) x 100 = 11.79%

Q48. In an examination, 38% of students failed in French and 52% of students failed in History; 20% of students failed in both subjects. If the number of students who passed the examination is 100 more than the number of students who failed in both subjects, the number of students in the class

(a) 1000 (b) 1100 (c) 1250 (d) 900

Ans: [a]

Percentage of students who get failed in at least one subject = 38+ 52- 20 = 70%

Percentage of students who get passed in both subjects = 30%

Students failed in both the subjects = 20%

So, according to the question 10% = 100

Total number of students = 100% = 1000

Q49. A’s income is 25% more than that of B, and B’s income is 25% less than that of C. If C’s income is Rs 5000 more than that of A. The total income of the three persons is

(a) 160000 (b) 200000 (c) 215000 (d) 90000

Ans: [c]

A: B = 5: 4

B: C = 3: 4

A: B: C = 15: 12: 16

C- A = 1

According to question

1 = Rs 5000

So, (15+ 12+ 16 = 43) = Rs 43 x 5000 = Rs 215000

Q50. A shopkeeper fixed his selling price of goods at 30% above the cost price. He sells one-third of the stock at this price, one-third of his stock at a discount of 15% on the original selling price, and the rest at the cost price. Find the gain percent altogether.

(a) 14.875% (b) 15.375% (c) 13.5% (d) 16.375%

Ans: [c]

Let the total number of articles be 30, and the cost per article be Rs 100.

Total Cost Price = Rs 30 x 100 = Rs 3000

10 articles be sold at the rate of Rs 130 (30% more than the CP)

10 articles be sold at the rate of Rs 110.5 (discount of 15%)

10 articles be sold at the rate of Rs 100.

Total Selling Price = Rs 10 x 130 + Rs 10 x 110.5 + Rs 10 x 100 = Rs 3405

Total Cost Price = Rs 100 x 30 = Rs 3000

Profit % = (405/3000) x 100 = 13. 5 %

Q51. Three amounts x, y, and z (z = 2x) are such that y is the difference between CI and SI for two years on x and z, respectively, at 10% per annum. Then y is

(a) 22% of z (b) 22% of x (c) 22% of x (d) 20% of x

Ans: [b]

SI = 2x/10

CI = z/10 + z/10 + z/102 = 21z/100

Difference = y = 21z/100 – 2x/10 = (21z – 20x)/100

⇒ 100y = 42x – 20x = 22x

y is 22% of x.

Q52. Two bags, P and Q, were filled with a mixture of A and B.

In P; A: B = 5: 3.

In Q; A: B = 7: 3.

What quantity must be taken from P to form a mixture that will contain 8 kg of A and 3kg of B?

(a) 4 kg (b) 5 kg (c) 6 kg (d) This cannot be achieved

Ans: [d]

According to the given information, a unique solution cannot be determined.

Q53. A tank with a capacity of 250 litres has an inlet and an outlet tap. If both are opened simultaneously, the tank is filled in 25 minutes. But if the outlet flow rate is doubled and the taps are opened, the tank never gets filled. Which of the following can be an outlet flow rate in liters/min?

(a) 6 (b) 8 (c) 12 (d) 5

Ans: [c]

The net flow rate = 250/25 = 10 litres/minutes.

The required answer will be such that when it is doubled, the increase in emptying rate

(in litres/minute) should be more than 10 litres/minute.

Q54. 15 men complete a work in 15 days with the help of 5 boys. 5 days after they had started working, 5 more men join them. How many more days will all of them need to complete the remaining work if 20 boys can complete the whole work in 30 days? (Nearest to integer)

(a) 10 days (b) 12 days (c) 15 days (d) 8 days

Ans: [d]

(15M + 5B) x 15 = 20B x 20

225M = 325B

M: B = 13: 9

Total Work = 20x 9x 20 = 3600

Also, 3600 = 5x (15M + 5B) + Dx (20M+ 5B) = 5x (15x 13+ 5x 9) + Dx (20x 13+ 5x9)

⇒ 3600 = 5x 240+ Dx 305

⇒ D = 7.86

Q55. The time taken by two buses to meet while travelling in opposite directions, which are initially at a distance of 420 km, is 2 hours and 20 minutes. If the difference between their speeds is 5 kmph, find the slower speed.

(a) 55 kmph (b) 60 kmph (c) 65 kmph (d) 57.5 kmph

Ans: [d]

Relative speed of two buses (S1+ S2) = 420/(7/3) = 120 Km/hr

Since the difference between both speeds is 5 Km/hr

The speed of the slower bus will be 57.5 Km/hr.

Q56. Find the ratio of the lengths of two chords making angles of 600 and 1200 at the centre of the same circle, respectively.

(a) 1: 2 (b) 2: 1 (c) 1: √3 (d) s√3: 1

Ans: [c]

Let the radius of circle = R

Chord making an angle of 600

1697170637825

x = R Sin300 = R/2

Chord = 2x = R

Chord making an angle of 1200

1697170637943

y = R Sin60 = R√3/2

Chord = 2y = R√3

Chord1: Chord2 = 1: √3

Q57. If three horses are tied at the three alternate corners of a regular hexagon of side 10m with a rope of 5m. Find the radius of a circle whose area is equal to the total grazing area of the three horses.

(a) 10m (b) 5/2 m (c) 5m (d) 4m

Ans: [c]

Internal angle of a regular hexagon is 1200

Total grazed area = 3(120/360) x π x 52

Area of a circle with radius R = πR2

According to question

πR2 = 3(120/360) x π x 52

R = 5m.

Q58. Three metal cubes with edges of 6 cm, 8 cm, and 10 cm, respectively, are melted together and form a solid frustum of a cone of height 2 cm. Find the radius of the top of the frustum if the base radius is 25 cm. (The radius of the base is greater.)

(a) 11 cm (b) 12 cm (c) 13 cm (d) 14 cm

Ans: [d]

Let the radii of the base and the top be R and r, respectively.

Then according to question

63 + 83+ 103 = π (252 – r2) x 2 1

3

⇒ r2 = 200

So, r = 14.14 cm

Q59. The area of the square base of a prism is 25 cm2, and its volume is 150 cm3 . Find its total surface area.

  1. 100 cm2
  2. 180 cm2
  3. 170 cm2
  4. 270 cm2

Ans: [c]

Volume of prism = Area of base x height

150 = 25 x h

h = 6 cm

Total Surface Area = 4(5x 6) + 2 x 25 = 170 cm2

Q60. The points (p–6, p + 3), (p - 5, p + 2), (p - 4, p+ 1) are collinear for

(a) p = 0 (b) p = 1 (c) p = –1/2 (d) Any value of p

Ans: [d]

Three points are collinear if Slope of first two points = slope of last two points

1697170637603

which gives -1 = -1.

It means P can take any value.

Q61. f(xy) = f(x)+ f(y) and f(x+ y) = f(x)f(y) for all x, y. f(4) = 4, what is least value of f(8)?

(a) 3 (b) 2 (c) 6 (d) -2

Ans: [b]

f(x + y) = f(x)f(y)

Let x = y =2

f(4) = 4 = f(2)f(2)

So, f(2) = 2, -2

f(8) = f(4x 2) = f(4) + f(2)

if f(2) =2; f(8) = 6

if f(2) = -2; f(8) = 2

Q62. Given f(t) = kt - 4 and g(t) = 7t + 2. If fog = gof, find k.

(a) -11 (b) 11 (c) 22 (d) -22

Ans: [a]

fog = k(7t+ 2) -4 = 7kt +2k – 4

gof = 7(kt – 4) + 2 = 7kt – 28 + 2

According to question

7kt +2k – 4 = (7kt – 28 + 2)

⇒ 2k = -22

So, k = -11.

Q63. If x2 – 7x + 12 is a factor of x3 – ax + 21b2 = 0 then the values of a and b are

(a) –2, 37 (b) 2, 37 (c) 37, -2 (d) 5, –4

Ans: [c]

x2 – 7x + 12 = 0

So, x = 3, 4 which are solutions of x3 – ax + 21b2 = 0

If x= 3; 33

- 3a +21b2 =0

And at x = 4; 43

- 4a +21b2 =0

On solving the above equations; a = 37 and b = 2, -2.

Q64. If a team of six persons is to be selected from 8 men, 8 women, and 8 children, then in how many ways can the selections be made to include at least one man, one child, and one woman? [TITA]

Ans: [88788]

Combinations can be

4M, 1W, 1C (8C4x 8 x 8 = 4480)

3M, 2W, 1C (8C3x

8C2 x 8 = 12544)

3M, 1W, 2C (8C3x

8C2 x 8 = 12544)

2M, 3W, 1C (8C3x

8C2 x 8 = 12544)

2M, 2W, 2C (8C2x 3 = 84)

2M, 1W, 3C (8C3x

8C2 x 8 = 12544)

1M, 4W, 1C (8C4x 8 x 8 = 4480)

1M, 3W, 2C (8C3x

8C2 x 8 = 12544)

1M, 2W, 3C (8C3x

8C2 x 8 = 12544)

1M, 1W, 4C (8C4x 8 x 8 = 4480)

Total ways are = 88788

Q65. Two polygons have diagonals in the ratio 5: 4. What is the ratio of the number of sides in both polygons?

(a) 8: 9 (b) 5: 4 (c) 9: 10 (d) 10: 9

Ans: [d]

Let the number of sides of two polygons be m and n, respectively. Then

(mC2 -2)/(nC2 -2) = 5: 4

Solve through options.

(a) and (c) are straight away wrong since the numerator is less than the denominator.

(Number of sides is greater in a polygon with a greater number of diagonals)

Verify the other two options, and we get our answer.

Q66. Find the number of zeroes in 1001*983*965*______*299 [TITA]

Ans: [512]

We need to count the number of 5’s as the number of 2’s is clearly greater.

In this series, only even terms are there. So, we will get 5’s only in 100, 90, 80, …., 10

100 = 25 x4 (2 fives)

50 = 25 x 2 (2 fives) and the rest contain only 1 five each.

So, expression can be reduced to:

1001x 9011x 8021x ……x 1091

So, number of 5’s = 2x1 + 11+ 21+ 31+ 41+ 2x 51 + 61+ 71+ 81+ 91= 512

Benefits of Solving the CAT Mock Test

Solving the CAT exam model question paper has a number of benefits. This enables candidates to learn more about the CAT syllabus and topics in preparation for the exam. Candidates who plan to take the CAT in 2023 are advised to take as many CAT sample paper as they can. Alternatively, they should at least take two or more CAT practice tests each week.

CAT (Common Admission Test) aspirants often find immense value in CAT previous year question papers and sample papers. These resources, such as the CAT question paper from 2021 and CAT previous year papers, serve as invaluable tools for exam preparation. By studying these CAT PYQs (Previous Year Questions), you gain insights into the exam pattern, question types, and difficulty level. CAT previous year sample papers enable you to hone your problem-solving skills, time management, and overall test-taking strategies. Practicing with the CAT question paper from 2021 and other past papers is a crucial step in achieving success in this highly competitive entrance exam, as it allows you to familiarize yourself with the CAT exam's nuances and boost their confidence for the D-day.

  • Time Management: Best Tips To Improve Speed & Accuracy

The candidates will be able to solve the real CAT question paper more quickly and accurately by solving the most CAT sample papers possible because they will be familiar with the CAT question paper's various question variations.

It's important to keep track of how long it takes you to complete the CAT sample papers. It will train candidates to finish the CAT question paper within the allotted time and develop different approaches to finish the paper successfully.

  • Creates the Exam Environment - CAT mock Test

Candidates will learn more about the nature and types of questions asked in CAT 2023 by completing the CAT mock test. Students can compare their performance to that of the IIM candidates for a particular year.

  • Evaluate Your Preparation Level

With the aid of CAT sample papers from previous years, students can pinpoint their areas of strength and weakness. Additionally, if 100 questions are asked annually on average, students who complete the 10-year CAT exam paper will have 1000 useful practice questions.

How do you attempt a CAT?

The candidates must be familiar with how to respond to questions in CAT 2023 before beginning the CAT exam. When responding to the questions, students should choose from the following options: Save and Next: Students should select the answer, save it and move on to the next question.

Clear Response: Students will have the option to delete the answer to the question they already answered.

Mark for Review and Next: If the students are unsure about the answer, in such a case candidates have the option to mark it as a review, then answer it, and then move on to the next one.

What does each colour on the panel represent?

Panel Colour

What it Indicates

Green

The question was answered and not reviewed.

Red

The question was not answered and is not marked for review.

Violet

The question is marked for review and not yet answered.

Violet with Green tick

The question was marked and answered for review.

Grey

Question is not viewed or visited.

Note: Incorporating mock tests into your CAT preparation strategy is crucial for building a strong foundation, refining your skills, and increasing your chances of achieving a competitive score on the actual exam day.

Day 59 will be uploaded tomorrow, till then

Keep practising, keep learning

Thank you! All the Best

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Questions related to CAT

Have a question related to CAT ?

Hello aspirant,
The CAT exam syllabus is not officially prescribed, but it generally includes topics from the following sections:

1. Verbal Ability and Reading Comprehension (VARC)
2. Data interpretation and logical reasoning
3. Quantitative ability

  • Arithmetic

  • Algebra

  • Geometry and Mensuration

  • Number System

  • Modern Math

It seems unlikely that you would be able to get admission in the BTech CS branch at BIT Sindri or Mesra with a CML rank of 2058 and category rank of 433.

Key points:

1. The search results indicate that a CML (Common Merit List) rank of 2058 is quite low for admission to premier engineering colleges like BIT Sindri or NIT Mesra.

2. The cutoff ranks for BTech CS branch at these institutes are usually much higher, often in the range of 1000-2000 for the general category.

3. With a category rank of 433, you may have a better chance of getting admission in the reserved category quota, but the competition is still quite high.

4. The search results do not provide specific cutoff details for BIT Sindri or NIT Mesra, but the general trend suggests your current ranks may not be sufficient for the CS branch in these institutes.

My advice would be to:

1. Check the latest cutoff ranks and admission criteria on the official websites of BIT Sindri and NIT Mesra.

2. Explore other options like state-level engineering colleges or NITs where your current ranks may have a better chance of securing admission.

3. Consider improving your performance in the next attempt of the entrance exam to increase your chances of getting into your desired BTech program.



For VARC, read daily from diverse sources (newspapers, novels, journals) to improve comprehension and vocabulary. Practice RC passages and verbal ability questions regularly. For DILR (Data Interpretation and Logical Reasoning) and QA (Quantitative Aptitude), solve previous years' papers and take mock tests to identify weak areas. Join a coaching institute or online courses for guidance and stay consistent with your study schedule. Review and analyze your performance in mocks to understand mistakes and improve. Maintain a positive mindset and stay disciplined in your preparation.

Hello aspirant,

Every year, IIMs conduct the Common Admission Test (CAT), a national MBA entrance exam, in rotation. For admission to over 1,200 institutions and premier B-schools in India, as well as PGDM, Executive MBA, PhD, and FPM programmes, the IIM CAT exam is regarded as one of the most difficult MBA entrance exams to pass. One of the best MBA schools in India, IIMs offers PGDM and MBA programmes for students who pass the CAT exam with scores in the 82nd to 99th percentiles.

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Thank you

Hope this information helps you.

Hello!

The educational qualification required for CAT exam is bachelor's degree or its equivalent from a recognized university with minimum of 50% for the open category and 45% for the SC/ST/PwD category. Since you have secured more than the required percentage in your bachelor's degree, you are eligible for CAT exam.

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1-radian measures 600. (True/False)

Option: 1

True


Option: 2

False


$111111^2$ = 

Option: 1

123456654321


Option: 2

123454321


Option: 3

123454321


Option: 4

12345654321


1111112 =___________ 

Option: 1

 123456654321


Option: 2

1234554321


Option: 3

123454321


Option: 4

12345654321


159702 is divisible by

Option: 1

7


Option: 2

9


Option: 3

11


Option: 4

6


1600 satellites were sent up by a country for several purposes. The purposes are classified as broadcasting (B), communication (C), surveillance (S), and others (O). A satellite can serve multiple purposes; however a satellite serving either B, or C, or S does not serve O. 

The following facts are known about the satellites: 

1. The numbers of satellites serving B, C, and S (though may be not exclusively) are in the ratio 2: 1:1. 

2. The number of satellites serving all three of B, C, and S is 100. 

3. The number of satellites exclusively serving C is the same as the number of satellites exclusively serving S. This number is 30% of the number of satellites exclusively serving B. 

4. The number of satellites serving O is the same as the number of satellites serving both C and S but not B. 

Question:

What best can be said about the number of satellites serving C? 

Option: 1

Must be between 450 and 725 

 


Option: 2

Cannot be more than 800 
 


Option: 3

Must be between 400 and 800 

 


Option: 4

Must be at least 100 


1600 satellites were sent up by a country for several purposes. The purposes are classified as broadcasting (B), communication (C), surveillance (S), and others (O). A satellite can serve multiple purposes; however a satellite serving either B, or C, or S does not serve O. 

The following facts are known about the satellites: 

1. The numbers of satellites serving B, C, and S (though may be not exclusively) are in the ratio 2: 1:1. 

2. The number of satellites serving all three of B, C, and S is 100. 

3. The number of satellites exclusively serving C is the same as the number of satellites exclusively serving S. This number is 30% of the number of satellites exclusively serving B. 

4. The number of satellites serving O is the same as the number of satellites serving both C and S but not B. 

Question:

What is the minimum possible number of satellites serving B exclusively? 

Option: 1

100


Option: 2

200


Option: 3

500


Option: 4

250


1600 satellites were sent up by a country for several purposes. The purposes are classified as broadcasting (B), communication (C), surveillance (S), and others (O). A satellite can serve multiple purposes; however a satellite serving either B, or C, or S does not serve O. 

The following facts are known about the satellites: 

1. The numbers of satellites serving B, C, and S (though may be not exclusively) are in the ratio 2: 1:1. 

2. The number of satellites serving all three of B, C, and S is 100. 

3. The number of satellites exclusively serving C is the same as the number of satellites exclusively serving S. This number is 30% of the number of satellites exclusively serving B. 

4. The number of satellites serving O is the same as the number of satellites serving both C and S but not B. 

Question:

If at least 100 of the 1600 satellites were serving O, what can be said about the number of satellites serving S? 

Option: 1

At most 475 

 


Option: 2

Exactly 475 
 


Option: 3

At least 475 

 


Option: 4

No conclusion is possible based on the given information 


1600 satellites were sent up by a country for several purposes. The purposes are classified as broadcasting (B), communication (C), surveillance (S), and others (O). A satellite can serve multiple purposes; however a satellite serving either B, or C, or S does not serve O. 

The following facts are known about the satellites: 

1. The numbers of satellites serving B, C, and S (though may be not exclusively) are in the ratio 2: 1:1. 

2. The number of satellites serving all three of B, C, and S is 100. 

3. The number of satellites exclusively serving C is the same as the number of satellites exclusively serving S. This number is 30% of the number of satellites exclusively serving B. 

4. The number of satellites serving O is the same as the number of satellites serving both C and S but not B. 

Question:

 If the number of satellites serving at least two among B, C, and S is 1200, which of the following MUST be FALSE? 

Option: 1

The number of satellites serving C cannot be uniquely determined 

 


Option: 2

The number of satellites serving B is more than 1000 
 


Option: 3

All 1600 satellites serve B or C or S 

 


Option: 4

The number of satellites serving B exclusively is exactly 250 


2839155 is divisible by

Option: 1

2


Option: 2

7


Option: 3

55


Option: 4

None of the above


'a' for which x^{2}-ax+9= 0 can be written as square of a linear factor is

Option: 1

6


Option: 2

-6,6


Option: 3

\left ( 6,\infty \right )


Option: 4

\left ( -\infty,-6 \right )


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