MAT Mock Test 2025: Get Free Online MAT Mock Test Series With Answers

MAT Mock Test 2025

To ace the MAT (Management Aptitude Test), the candidates require proper planning and an exam-taking strategy. One of the best strategies suggested by previous years’ MAT toppers and experts to the aspirants to score high MAT exam percentile is to rigorously practice the MAT mock tests. Taking the MAT free mock test helps candidates in analyzing their weak and strong areas.

The MAT mock tests are an amalgamation of previous years’ questions and expected questions. If you are planning to take the MAT 2025 and expect a good MAT exam score, you must take MAT mock test online. The advantage of giving free online MAT mock tests is that you will be able to analyze your preparation and focus on the part that needs more attention.

How to Access the Official AIMA MAT Mock Test 2025?

AIMA provides an MAT free mock test on its official website. Here is how you can obtain it:

Step 1: Visit the official AIMA-MAT website, mat.aima.in.

Click on the ‘Take MAT Mock test’ tab which is on your left side.

Step 2: Enter your registered email ID and password.

Step 3: Click on ‘Login’ to go to your dashboard.

Step 4: Select a mock test for MAT exam from the options and start solving the questions.

Free MAT Mock Test by Careers360

Careers360 provides a free MAT mock test for those aspirants who are preparing for the MBA entrance test. These free MAT mock tests are designed as the actual MAT exam paper and the difficulty level is also the same so that candidates can get the experience of actual D-day. By attempting these MAT mock tests, candidates can strengthen their grip on the important topics of MAT. Here we have provided the free link to attempt the MAT mock test.

After taking these free MAT mock tests, candidates are advised to analyze their scores and performance so that they can get a clear picture of which topics they are good at and on which they need to work more.

Factors to Consider While Attempting MAT 2025 Mock Test

• Create a strategy and check whether it works when you give the mock test.
• Plan before on the section you want to answer first.
• Prepare yourself with multiple tactics while solving the mock test and observe what works best for you.
• After giving the MAT mock test with answers, analyze your performance.
• Figure out the area in which you need to pay more attention.

Advantages of Solving MAT Mock Test

• The primary advantage of solving the MAT mock test 2025 is that it helps you to overcome the fear you hold due to the MAT exam. Solving the MAT free mock test also enables you to have a clear-cut idea about the MAT exam.
• The thorough practice of MAT exam mock tests helps candidates to understand the exam pattern and question format by simultaneously giving the real MAT exam experience.

• By practising MAT free mock test the candidates will be able to calculate the time given for each section, and based on it the candidates learn to manage the time accordingly.

• Giving MAT mock test with answers helps you to introspect your weak and strong areas, working according to the consequences will boost the preparation of the MAT test.

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MAT Question Paper

While preparing for the MAT entrance exam, apart from taking the MAT exam mock test, candidates are advised to solve MAT question papers of past years to get a hang of it and for time management. Scroll down to this page to download the previous year's MAT question paper. By solving MAT question papers candidates can become aware of MAT exam structure.

Quick Links-

Previous Year MAT Question Papers

The table below contains MAT sample papers of different years with a direct link provided for each to download. Candidates can download the respective MAT paper and give the test.

MAT Previous Year Question Papers and Sample Papers

How to Download the MAT Question Paper?

Step 1: To download MAT previous year question paper, visit the official Careers360 website.
Step 2: Now candidates need to register first by providing all the necessary details.
Step 3: After registration, log in with your Careers360 credentials.
Step 4: One can also use their Google or Facebook account for login purposes and download the MAT sample paper.
Step 5: Now candidates need to visit the MAT exam question paper store.
Step 6: Click on the “Download” tab.

MAT Question Paper: Sample Questions with Solutions

Intelligence and Critical Reasoning

Q. In the question below, a statement is followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted.

Statement:

The patient’s condition would improve after operation.

Assumptions:

I. The patient can be operated upon in this condition.

II. The patient cannot be operated upon in this condition.

A) if only assumption I is implicit B) if only assumption II is implicit C) if neither assumption I nor II is implicit

D) if both assumptions I and II are implicit

Correct Answer:- A

Explanation:

Option 1. The phrase ‘would improve’ implies that the patient’s condition will improve hence assumption 1 is correct. If the patient cannot be operated upon then there is no point in suggesting this to him.

Q. In the question a statement is given followed by two arguments numbered I and II.

Should family planning be made compulsory in India?

Arguments:

I. Yes, looking at the miserable conditions in India, there is no other way.

II. No, in India there are people of various religions and family planning is against the tenets of some of the religions.

A) if only argument I is strong B) if only argument II is strong C) if neither argument I nor II is strong

D) if both arguments I and II are strong

Correct Answer:- B

Explanation:

Argument 1 is rejected as it is not the only option left for the country as there are other ways to tackle the issue of miserable conditions. The second argument is strong because family planning may not be in accordance with the practices of a few religions.

Q. If P is taller than Q, R is shorter than P, S is taller than T but shorter than Q, then who among them is the tallest?

A) P B) Q C) S D) T

Correct Answer:- A

Explanation:-

P > Q , P > R , Q > S > T.

Combining the above we have two possibilities,

I- P > Q > R > S > T

II. P > R > Q > S > T

so, in either case P is the tallest.

Q. Read the information given below and answer the question that follows.

My bag can carry no more than ten books. I must carry at least one book each of management, mathematics, physics and fiction. Also for every management book I must carry two or more fiction books, and for every mathematics book I must carry two or more physics books. I earn 4, 3, 2, and 1 points for each management, mathematics, physics and fiction book, respectively, I carry in my bag. I want to maximize the points I can earn by carrying the most appropriate combination of books in my bag. The maximum points that I can earn are

A) 20 B) 21 C) 22 D) 23

Correct Answer:- C

Explanation:-

1 Management book along with 2 Fiction books.

1 Mathematics book along with 2 Physics books.

Up to now, we have 6 books. Now we take 1 more Mathematics book and hence 3 more physics books.

So total books = 1 + 2 + 1 + 2 + 1 + 3 = 10 and total points = 4 + 2 + 3 + 4 + 3 + 6 = 22. So answer is 3rd option.

Q. A cube is to be coloured in such a way as to avoid the same colour on adjacent surfaces. What is the minimum number of colours you will require?

A) Three B) Four C) Six D) Nine

Correct Answer:- A

Explanation:-

Fixing any of the faces of the cube we have 4 adjacent faces to the cube and are left with only one face which is the opposite face, since there are 3 pairs of opposite faces hence, we would require atleast 3 different colours.

Q. What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following alphabetic series?

A, G, L, P, S, ‘?’

A) U B) W C) X D) Y

Correct Answer:- A

Explanation:-

A +6 G +5 L +4 P +3 S +2 U

Hence, the answer is option A

Data Analysis and Sufficiency

Q. Go through the pie chart/s given below and answer the question that follows.

Which of the following color options consists of 50 % of all the cycles?

A) Black, Golden, Blue, Red B) Blue, Black, Red, Silver C) White, Golden, Blue, Black D) None of these

Correct Answer:- C

Explanation:

From the pie chart we can see that

White + Golden + Blue + Black = 26 + 6 + 13 + 5 = 50%

Q. Go through the pie chart/s given below and answer the question that follows.

Cycles of which colour when increased by two percent and then combined with that of red cycles will make 30 percent of the total?

A) Golden B) Blue C) Black D) None of these

Correct Answer:- D

Explanation:-

The sale of green cycles is 9% and that of red cycles is 19%. Hence green cycles if increased by 2% and then combined with red cycles will make 30% of the total. Hence answer is 4th option.

Q. Analyse the graph/s given below and answer the question that follows.

If the imports of company A in Year VI were Rs. 10.40 crore, what were the exports of company A in the same year?

A) 13 crore B) 12.75 crore C) 12.50 crore D) None of these

Correct Answer:- A

Explanation:-

Imort/Export = 0.8 => 10.4/Export = 0.8 => Export = 13 cr.

Q. Analyse the graph/s given below and answer the question that follows.

It is supposed that Imports – Exports = x for company A in Year I and the imports of company A in Year I were Rs. 3.6 crore, and it is also supposed that Imports – Exports = a for company B in Year V and the exports of company B in Year V were Rs. 5 crore.

What is the relationship between a and x?

A) x > a B) x = a C) a > x D) None of these

Correct Answer:- C

Explanation:

For A,x= Imports - Exports (YEAR I)and the ratio is I/E=0.6

Also 0.6/1=3.6/E solving we get E=6, So x=3.6-6=-2.4

For B,a= Imports - Exports (YEAR V )and the ratio is I/E, 1.2/1=1/5

Solving we get I=6, so a=6-5=1. So clearly a>x.

Q. The question below is followed by two statements marked I and II. Mark as your answer.

What is the cost of laying the carpet in a rectangular hall?

1. Cost of the carpet is Rs. 450 per square metre.

2. Perimeter of the hall is 50 meters.

A) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

B) If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

C) If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.

D) If the data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

Correct Answer:- D

Explanation:-

Statement I gives the cost of the carpet only and no dimensions are known, so is not sufficient alone. Statement II gives us the perimeter of hall but since the hall is a rectangle we still do not know the length and breadth of the room. So not sufficient. Even on combining we do not know the dimensions of the room. Hence option (4).

Q. The question below is followed by two statements marked I and II. Mark as your answer.

What is the average daily wages of a worker who works for five days; he made Rs. 80 the first, day?

1. The worker made a total of Rs. 400 for the first four days of work.

2. The worker made 20% more each day than he did on the previous day.

A) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

B) If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

C) If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.

D) If the data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

Correct Answer:- B

Explanation:-

Statement I just tells us the total of Rs.400 for the first four days of the work, so the average daily wages of five days cannot be determined. Statement II states that the worker made 20 % more each day and we know that he earns Rs. 80 the first day, so we can calculate the wages for five days and hence the average. Hence statement II alone is sufficient to give the answer.

Language Comprehension

Q. Read the passage and answer the question based on it.

Astrologers are habitually prone to goof-ups; now have an excuse for why their predictions have been going haywire: the emergence of newer and newer planets that have caused their calculations to go awry. For the international team of astronomers who recently discovered eight new planets, the arrivals are, however, a cause for excitement. Indeed, even as the rest of the world continues to be consumed by a morbid passion for shiny new war machines, deadly chemicals and sinister war tactics, astronomers have been doggedly searching the heavens for more heavenly bodies in the belief that the search will take us closer to a more exalted goal " that of knowing the truth about us and the universe. Reality is much bigger than it seems the part we call the universe is the merest tip of the iceberg, one scientist remarked. How true. In the beginning, skeptics wouldn't accept that the earth actually moves, let alone that it revolves around the sun because of an unshaken belief that the earth was the centre of the universe. We've come a long way. Today, scientists have spotted nearly 80 extra-solar planets using sophisticated instruments. What's more, our universe may not be the only universe in the cosmos; there could well be several parallel universes teeming with many galaxies, solar systems and planets, although none of this may be perceptible to the naked eye. Perhaps sages who say that truth is not easily perceptible, mean just this " what is evidently before us is not the whole truth.

Scientists say that everything in the tangible universe has its shadowy counterpart in other, parallel universes. In fact, it is by observing the play of cosmic light and shadow through powerful devices that scientists have been able to feel shapes or see shadows that indicate the existence of other heavenly bodies without actually seeing them. The international team of scientists involved in the present discovery conducted their search through telescopes in Australia, Belgium, UK and the US. Two of the newly discovered eight planets are believed to have circular orbits very like the Earth's, while the others have well-defined elliptical orbits much like Pluto's. This is significant because a planet with a circular orbit would more likely be hospitable to life forms than would one with an elliptical orbit. In the latter, the planet experiences extreme temperatures depending on whether it is proximate to or distant from the energy-giving star it's circumambulating. As in the case of other recent discoveries " such as finding traces of microbes in a meteorite " this too strengthens the belief that we are not alone in the universe. So would we be exchanging inter galactic e-mails soon? Perhaps not as yet, given that our closest neighbouring galaxy is millions of light years away. What is within our immediate grasp, though, is exploring the viability of establishing human settlements in space " an endeavour that has assumed urgency what with biological terrorism and the like threatening humankind on earth. As Stephen Hawking recently said, I don't think the human race will survive the next thousand years unless we spread into space. There are too many accidents that can befall life on a single planet.

According to the passage, it can be inferred that

A) finding traces of microbes in a meteorite proves the existence of life on other planets.

B) finding traces of microbes in a meteorite converted the belief into truth that we are not alone in the universe.

C) finding traces of microbes in a meteorite would make it possible to exchange galactic e-mails in future.

D) finding traces of microbes in a meteorite made us think about exploring the viability of establishing human settlements in space.

Correct Answer:- A

Explanation:-

Option A. Refer to line 15 , Para 2 - As in the case of other recent discoveries " such as finding traces of microbes in a meteorite " this too strengthens the belief that we are not alone in the universe..

It's clearly stated that "it too strengthens the belief that we are not alone in the universe", which means that it proved the idea of the existence of life on other planets.

Q. Read the passage and answer the question based on it.

Astrologers are habitually prone to goof-ups; now have an excuse for why their predictions have been going haywire: the emergence of newer and newer planets that have caused their calculations to go awry. For the international team of astronomers who recently discovered eight new planets, the arrivals are, however, a cause for excitement. Indeed, even as the rest of the world continues to be consumed by a morbid passion for shiny new war machines, deadly chemicals and sinister war tactics, astronomers have been doggedly searching the heavens for more heavenly bodies in the belief that the search will take us closer to a more exalted goal " that of knowing the truth about us and the universe. Reality is much bigger than it seems the part we call the universe is the merest tip of the iceberg, one scientist remarked. How true. In the beginning, skeptics wouldn't accept that the earth actually moves, let alone that it revolves around the sun because of an unshaken belief that the earth was the centre of the universe. We've come a long way. Today, scientists have spotted nearly 80 extra-solar planets using sophisticated instruments. What's more, our universe may not be the only universe in the cosmos; there could well be several parallel universes teeming with many galaxies, solar systems and planets, although none of this may be perceptible to the naked eye. Perhaps sages who say that truth is not easily perceptible, mean just this " what is evidently before us is not the whole truth.

Scientists say that everything in the tangible universe has its shadowy counterpart in other, parallel universes. In fact, it is by observing the play of cosmic light and shadow through powerful devices that scientists have been able to feel shapes or see shadows that indicate the existence of other heavenly bodies without actually seeing them. The international team of scientists involved in the present discovery conducted their search through telescopes in Australia, Belgium, UK and the US. Two of the newly discovered eight planets are believed to have circular orbits very like the Earth's, while the others have well-defined elliptical orbits much like Pluto's. This is significant because a planet with a circular orbit would more likely be hospitable to life forms than would one with an elliptical orbit. In the latter, the planet experiences extreme temperatures depending on whether it is proximate to or distant from the energy-giving star it's circumambulating. As in the case of other recent discoveries " such as finding traces of microbes in a meteorite " this too strengthens the belief that we are not alone in the universe. So would we be exchanging inter galactic e-mails soon? Perhaps not as yet, given that our closest neighbouring galaxy is millions of light years away. What is within our immediate grasp, though, is exploring the viability of establishing human settlements in space " an endeavour that has assumed urgency what with biological terrorism and the like threatening humankind on earth. As Stephen Hawking recently said, I don't think the human race will survive the next thousand years unless we spread into space. There are too many accidents that can befall life on a single planet.

According to the author's belief, it can be inferred that all of the following are not true except

A) it is unlikely that the human race can survive the next thousand years.

B) it seems quite likely that the human race can survive the next thousand years.

C) accidents will wipe out the human race from this planet by accident within the next one thousand years.

D) the age of human race is one thousand years.

Correct Answer:- A

Explanation:-

Option A. We are asked which of the options is true. Refer to last few lines 'As Stephen Hawking recently said, 'I don't think the human race will survive the next thousand years unless we spread into space. There are too many accidents that can befall life on a single planet'. Hence this makes option A true.

Q. Choose an option, which can be substituted for a given word/sentence/phrase out of given options.

A poem written on the death of someone loved and lost

A) Ode B) Epic C) Sonnet D) Elegy

Correct Answer:- D

Explanation:-

An elegy is a sad poem, usually written to praise and express sorrow for someone who is dead.

Ode: a lyric poem with complex stanza forms. Sonnet : a verse form consisting of 14 lines with a fixed rhyme scheme

Q. Complete the sentence by filling in the appropriate blank/blanks from the options provided.

The young boy’s _________ attempts to explain to his girlfriend why he had failed to show for their movie date did little to ease

her _________ feelings.

A) impassioned, disconsolate B) veracious, vacuous C) unbelievable, gluttonous D) chronic, vicarious

Correct Answer:- A

Explanation:-

Option 1. It has to be a ‘forceful attempt” to console somebody who is feeling dejected. This makes option 1 correct. 2nd word of option 3 has nothing to do with the question asked as ‘gluttonous’ means ‘strongly inclined to eating ’, it is rejected. Option 4 is rejected because ‘chronic’ attempts don’t make any sense. Option 3 is weak because ‘vacuous feelings’ do not make sense as vacuous means ‘stupid’ or ‘empty’

Q. Choose the most logical order of sentences from among the given choices to construct a coherent paragraph.

1. The upsurge of public activism against the setting up of Special Economic Zones, which eventually forced the State government to announce the scrapping of all 15 such projects, is an impressive case in point.
2. Early last year, a similar agitation coerced the government into calling for a revision of the Goa Regional Plan 2011, a controversial document that opened up large swathes of land, including green belts and coastal stretches, for construction.
3. The broad-based agitation against SEZs has demonstrated the power of popular protest in the State.
4. Those opposed to the projects had questioned the propriety of the government acquiring large tracts of land and then selling them to promoters at low prices.
5. A coastal State with an area of 3,700 square kilometers and a population of about 1.4 million, Goa has always been extremely sensitive to the impact of unrestrained economic development.

A) BCDEA B) CDEAB C) EABCD D) DABCE

Correct Answer:- C

Explanation:-

Option 3. E will open the sequence as it is introducing the topic of the discussion that how Goa is opposed to all kind of blind industrialization drives. It is followed by A, as it shows that how unplanned industrialization led to the public uprising and government had to cancel a few of the projects there. After this B will come as it strengthens A, by giving similar kind of uprising that happened last year. After that C, will come as it elaborates upon B. finally D will conclude the sequence.

Q. A sentence is divided into four parts. Choose the part that is/are grammatically incorrect.

When it became apparent to Clive that not one of the remaining jurors were going to believe his client’s alibi, he began to reconsider the District Attorney’s offer of a plea bargain.

A) it became apparent B) were going C) client’s D) offer

Correct Answer:- B

Explanation:-

After the phrase ‘one of’ a singular helping verb should be used because the subject is 'one'. Therefore ‘was’ in place of ‘were’.

Indian and Global Environment

Q. The symbol for Swachch Bharat Abhiyan contains ______________

A) Stick of Mahatma Gandhi B) Image of Mahatma Gandhi C) Specs of Mahatma Gandhi D) Two Green Leaves

Correct Answer:- C

Explanation:

The symbol for Swachch Bharat Abhiyan contains the distinctive round glasses or specs worn by Mahatma Gandhi.

Q. World Mosquito Day is observed annually on ________.

A) August 17 B) August 18 C) August 20 D) August 19

Correct Answer:- C

Explanation:

World Mosquito Day on August 20th honors British doctor Sir Ronald Ross's 1897 discovery that female mosquitoes spread malaria between humans.

Q. Which country has the largest rail network in the world?

A) India B) U.K. C) China D) U.S.A.

Correct Answer:- D

Explanation:

The United States of America is the country that has the largest rail network in the world. The total length of the rail network is around 220,044 km.

Q. The classical dance form Kathakali originated in which Indian State?

A) Orissa B) Tamil Nadu C) West Bengal D) Kerala

Correct Answer:- D

Explanation:

Kathakali, a classical dance form, originated in Kerala, India, around the 16th/17th century. It is one of the eight classical dance forms of India.

Q. A minor planet is named after which one of the following Indian Legends?

A) Viswanathan Anand B) Sachin Tendulkar C) A. R. Rahman D) Milkha Singh

Correct Answer:- A

Explanation:

Indian Chess Grand Master Viswanathan Anand has a minor planet named after him called “4538 Vishyanand”.

Q. Who among the following is known as the Metro man of India?

A) Rajendran B) E. Sridharan C) N. Mishra D) K. S. Rao

Correct Answer:- B

Explanation:

E. Sreedharan is known as the "Metro man of India". He is noted for his significant contributions to the development of metro rail projects in India.

Mathematics

Q. A can hit a target 4 times in 5 shots, B hits 3 times in 4 shots, and C hits twice in 3 shots. They fire together. Find the probability that at least two shots hit the target.

A) 13/30 B) 5/6 C) 11/40 D) None of these

Correct Answer:- B

Explanation:

Required probability =P(ABC ̅)+P(AB ̅C)+P(A ̅BC)+P(ABC)

(4/5×3/4×1/3)+(4/5×1/4×2/3)+(1/5×3/4×2/3)+(4/5×3/4×2/3)=⅚

Q. Fill pipe A is 3 times faster than second Fill pipe B and takes 32 minutes less than Fill pipe B. When will the cistern be full if both pipes are opened together?

A) 25 minutes B) 24 minutes C) 30 minutes D) 12 minutes

Correct Answer:- D

Explanation:-

Let the time taken by A to fill the pipe is = A min.

and the time taken by B to fill the pipe B is = B min.

According to the given condition B = 3A;

and given that B – A = 32 min.

So solving we get, A = 16 min, B = 48 min.

Let the total work be 48 units.

So time taken by them together is 48/(3 + 1) = 12 min.

Q. The retail price of a water geyser is Rs. 1,265. If the manufacturer gains 10 %, the wholesale dealer gains 15 % and the retailer gains 25 %, then the cost of the product is:

A) Rs. 800 B) Rs. 900 C) Rs. 700 D) Rs. 600

Correct Answer:- A

Explanation:

Suppose the cost = Rs x

∴ S.P. of the manufacturer =x+10% of x=11x/10

⇒ S.P. of the wholesale dealer

=11x/10+15% of 11x/10=11x/10+33x/200=253/200 x

⇒ S.P. of the retailer

=253/200 x+25% of 253/200 x

=253/200 x+253/800 x=1265/800 x

∴ 1265/800 x = 1265

⇒ x=800.

Q. What percent of selling price would be 34 % of cost price if gross profit is 26 % of the selling price?

A) 17.16% B) 74% C) 25.16% D) 88.40%

Correct Answer:- C

Explanation:

X% of SP = 34% of CP

Also, P = 26% of SP

⇒SP-CP=0.26(SP)

⇒CP=0.74(SP)

Now, 34/100×74=X

X=25.16

Q. A man sitting in a train travelling at the rate of 50 km/hr observes that it takes 9 sec for a goods train travelling in the opposite direction to pass him. If the goods train is 187.5 m long, find its speed.

A) 25 km/hr B) 40 km/hr C) 35 km/hr D) 36 km/hr

Correct Answer:- A

Explanation:

Let required speed be x.

∴187.5/((x+50)5/18)=9

⇒x=25kmph

Q. A team of workers was employed by a contractor who undertook to finish 360 pieces of an article in a certain number of days. Making four more pieces per day than was planned, they could complete the job a day ahead of schedule. How many days will they take to complete the job according to the new planning?

A) 8 days B) 9 days C) 10 days D) 12 days

Correct Answer:- B

Explanation:

Days taken in the general scenario =360/N;

Days taken when 4 articles are prepared extra per day =360/(N+4);

The difference in the day is one, therefore;

360/N-360/(N+4)=1

N²+4N-1440=0;

N=36, i.e. number of item prepared in general scenario is 36 , and where 4 articles prepared extra is 40 .

Therefore no of days taken to complete the job =360/40 = 9

MAT Exam Pattern 2025

The MAT exam pattern mentions the details about the MAT exam mode, duration, question format, type of questions asked in the exam, total marks, and so on. The MAT 2025 paper consists of five sections namely Intelligence and Critical Reasoning, Data Analysis and Sufficiency, Language and Comprehension, Indian and Global Environment, Mathematics, and each section carries 30 questions.

The total number of questions is 150 and the total time given is 120 minutes. The marking scheme involves one mark for every correct answer and a negative marking of 0.25 for every wrong answer. Below mentioned is the MAT exam pattern.

MAT 2025 Exam Pattern: Overview

Top MBA Colleges accepting MAT scores - State-wise

Top MBA Colleges Accepting MAT Scores - City-Wise