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The Sharda University Admission Test abbreviated as SUAT is a popular nationwide entrance examination. The SUAT MBA exam is held for the purpose of admitting students to the MBA degree program of Sharda University. It is mandatory that the candidates practice sufficient SUAT mock tests before the actual SUAT MBA examination. In this article, the significance of the SUAT mock test is discussed in depth along with the expertly crafted SUAT MBA mock test.
Mock tests are powerful preparation material for any exam. If a candidate wishes to get a good SUAT score, they must attempt various SUAT MBA mock exams available online. These SUAT mock tests simulate the actual MBA SUAT examination and help the candidates to be aware of the examination and its difficulty before the actual SUAT MBA exam. Hence, we at Careers360 have meticulously designed this mock test on SUAT MBA exam preparation to take your SUAT exam preparation to the next level before your SUAT exam date in 2023.
For acing any entrance examination, the candidates must be aware of the examination pattern of the entrance test they are appearing for. In the table given below, all the necessary information related to the MBA SUAT exam is given for the reference of the candidates.
Particulars | Details |
Mode of exam | CBT (Computer-Based Test) |
Registration fee | Rs 1,500 for male candidates and Rs 1,000 for female candidates |
Examination Duration | 90 minutes |
Marking Scheme | 1 mark for each correct answer |
Negative Marking | No |
Passing Criteria | 35% marks (42 marks out of 120) |
Examination Centers | Sharda University campus, Sharda University Regional Offices, SUAT Exam Centres |
The SUAT 2024 is a CBT or a Computer Based Test. The candidates must be aware of how to write the CBT exams.
The candidates must register for the SUAT exam for MBA admissions by paying the examination fee on the official website portal. Later, the important information regarding the booking link, user-id/system-id & password essential for the CBT would be communicated to the candidates through their registered email IDs.
The candidates must use their credentials to log in and select their Exam State, Exam City, Exam Centre Test Date, and Time Slot.
The candidates must attend the test with their hall ticket and other necessary documents on the prescribed date.
The exam authorities would verify the documents of the candidates and later allow them to be seated for the SUAT exam for MBA admissions.
After the candidates complete their examination, the result will be communicated to them through their registered email.
Candidates who have successfully attained the minimum score would be called up for personal interview and group discussion or further admission proceedings based on the course they are applying for.
Taking mock tests is one of the most efficient ways to prepare for an entrance examination. It offers a lot of benefits for the candidates. Some of the most important advantages of practising SUAT MBA mock exams are:
Exam Strategy Development: Mock tests help candidates develop effective exam strategies, such as prioritising sections based on strengths and weaknesses, and managing time efficiently during the SUAT.
Understanding Question Difficulty Levels: By practising SUAT mock tests, candidates gain insights into the varying levels of difficulty in SUAT questions. This prepares them to handle both easy and challenging questions effectively on exam day.
Improving Speed and Accuracy: Regular practice with SUAT mock exams enhances candidates' speed and accuracy in solving problems within the given time constraints of the SUAT exam, thus maximising their score potential.
Identifying Important Topics: Analyzing SUAT mock tests allows candidates to identify frequently asked topics and important areas of focus within each section of the SUAT syllabus, ensuring comprehensive preparation.
SUAT MBA mock exam preparation tips can be very helpful for the candidates throughout their SUAT exam preparation.
Follow Instructions Carefully: Practice filling out answer sheets and understanding question formats to avoid procedural mistakes on exam day. Familiarity with exam structure can save time and prevent unnecessary errors.
Manage Time Efficiently: Allocate specific time slots for each section based on its difficulty and importance. Practising time management ensures you complete all sections within the allotted time and maximize your score potential.
Review and Analyze Performance: After each mock test, thoroughly review your answers. Identify areas of weakness and revise those topics. Analyzing mistakes helps in understanding concepts better and improves future performance.
Seek Feedback and Guidance: Discuss challenging questions and topics with teachers or subject matter experts. Their insights can provide new perspectives and strategies for approaching difficult questions effectively.
SUAT mock tests are pivotal in enhancing the candidate’s SUAT scores. Now let us discuss a few factors on why the SUAT MBA mock mocks designed by Careers360 stand out.
This mock test is prepared after thorough research of the official sample papers released by Sharda University. Through this, the accurate syllabus and the chapter-wise exam weightage are followed for each section (Quantitative Aptitude, Logical Reasoning and General Awareness).
For each question, elaborated answers written by subject matter experts are given. This helps the candidates understand the answers without any doubts.
This SUAT mock test follows the same structure as mock tests. The answers to all 120 questions are given at the end of the mock test so that the candidates can refer to it whenever they need to. The difficulty level of the mock test is set to be the same as that can be expected in the actual SUAT exam.
The candidates are advised to go through the SUAT mock exam designed by careers360 using the links given below.
SUAT MOCK TESTS |
Some of the sample questions asked in the SUAT examination is given below:
1. The LCM of x2 − 8x + 15 and x2 − 5x + 6 is:
(x - 2) (x - 3) (x − 5)
(x − 6)2 (x + 1) (x − 3)
(x − 6) (x + 1) (x − 3)
(x+6) (x+1) (x-3)
2. The number 2918245 is divisible by which of the following numbers?
3
11
12
9
3. . A group of boys has an average weight of 36 kg. One boy weighing 42 kg leaves the group and another boy weighing 30 kg joins the group. If the average now becomes 35.7 kg, then how many boys are there in the group?
30
32
40
56
4. A and B start running at the same time and from the same point around a circle. If A can complete one round in 40 seconds and B in 50 seconds, how many seconds will it take to reach the starting point simultaneously?
10
200
90
2000
5. The simple interest on an amount for 6 years at 4% p.a. is 7,500 less than the simple interest on the same amount for 11 years. Find the amount.
38,000
37,500
37,000
38,500
6. Raja and Rocky together can complete painting work in 5 days. Together they both start painting, but after 2 days, Rocky falls sick and leaves the work. If Raja completes the remaining painting in 4 days, find the number of days in which Rocky alone can do the work.
12 days
15 days
20 days
10 days
7. If 35% of A's income is equal to 25% of B's income, then the ratio of A's income to B's income is:
7:5
5:7
4:7
4:3
8. Directions: Three of the following four-letter clusters are alike in a certain way and one is different. Pick the odd one out.
UVD
PQI
JKZ
EFT
9. Directions: Select the odd group of numbers. (NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g.13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /subtracting /multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed)
14 – 193
15 – 220
16 – 251
17 – 284
10. Directions: Select the option that is related to the fifth number in the same way as the second number is related to the first number and the fourth number is related to the third number.
68 : 19 :: 76 : 21 :: 164 : ?
45
39
43
41
11. Directions: Which of the following diagrams represents the relationship among Animal, Leopard, and Lion?
12. Directions: A + B means A is the father of B;
A – B means A is the mother of B;
A * B means A is the sister of B;
A % B means A is the husband of B.
If A % B – C + D * E, then how is A related to E?
Father’s father
Brother
Father’s brother
Father-in-law
13. Directions: Which number will replace the question mark (?) in the following series?
3, 13, 53, 213, ?, 3413
1053
853
953
753
14. Directions: In this question, three statements are given, followed by three conclusions numbered I, II, and III. Assuming the statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follows/follow from the statements.
Statements:
Some roses are yellow.
Some yellow are buses.
All buses are green.
Conclusions:
I. All yellow are roses.
II. Some buses are yellow.
III. All yellow are green.
Only conclusion III follows
None of the conclusions follows
Only conclusion II follows
Only conclusion I follows
15. Find the "odd one out".
Linux
Windows 98
C++
Windows 7
16. Krishna III of Manyakheta belonged to which dynasty?
Chera
Pala
Rashtrakuta
Gurjara-Pratihara
17. Battle of Plassey was fought between the English company and Nawab of Bengal in which year?
1750
1757
1850
1857
18. Which is the oldest aluminium refinery plant in India?
The Damanjodi Plant
The Muri Alumina Plant
The Mettur Plant
The Belgaum Plant
19. Which of the following rivers does not flow in Kerala State?
Bharathapuzha
Periyar
Pamba
Penner
20. Which Article of the Indian Constitution talks about 'abolition of the title'?
Article 18
Article 20
Article 19
Article 17
21. Which of the following options conveys the meaning of the word ‘Republic’ in the Indian Constitution?
Elected head
Nominated head
Nominated head
Nominated head
1- A, 2- B, 3- C, 4- B, 5- B, 6- C, 7- B, 8- C, 9- A, 10- C, 11- C, 12- A, 13- B, 14- C, 15- C, 16- C, 17- B, 18- B, 19- D, 20- A, 21-A
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1. x2 − 8x + 15 = (x – 3)(x – 5)
x2 − 5x + 6 = (x – 2)(x – 3)
So, LCM (x2 − 8x + 15, x2 − 5x + 6) = LCM((x – 3)(x – 5), (x – 2)(x – 3))
= (x - 2) (x - 3) (x − 5)
Hence, the answer is (x - 2) (x - 3) (x − 5).
2. Given number = 2918245
Divisibility rule for 3: A number is completely divisible by 3 if the sum of its digits is divisible by 3
⇒ 2 + 9 + 1 + 8 + 2 + 4 + 5
⇒ 31 which is not divisible by 3
⇒ The given number will not be divisible by 12 and 9 either.
Divisibility rule for 11: The difference between the sum of digits at the odd position and the sum of digits at the even position in a number is 0 or 11.
⇒ (2 + 1 + 2 + 5) - (9 + 8 + 4)
⇒ 10 - 21
⇒ -11, which is divisible by 11.
Hence, the correct answer is 11.
3. Let the number of boys be x.
The total weight of the boys is 36x kg.
Now one boy weighing 42 kg leaves the group and another boy weighing 30 kg joins the group,
⇒ Total weight of the boys = (36x – 42 + 30) = (36x – 12) kg
According to the question, (36x – 12)/x = 35.7
⇒ 36x – 35.7x = 12
⇒ x = 12/0.3 = 40
Therefore, the number of boys in the group is 40.
Hence, the correct answer is 40.
4. Given:
A and B start running at the same time and from the same point around a circle. If A can complete one round in 40 seconds and B in 50 seconds.
Here, the LCM of 40 and 50 is = 4 × 5 × 10 = 200
So, to reach the starting point simultaneously they will take 200 seconds.
Hence, the correct answer is 200 seconds.
5. Given: Rate = 4% for both cases
Time = 6 years for 1st case and 11 years for the second case.
Let the amount be P.
Simple interest = (Principal × Rate × Time) / 100
According to the question,
⇒ (P × 4 × 11) / 100 – (P × 4 × 6) / 100 = 7500
⇒ (44P / 100) – (24P / 100) = 7500
⇒ (20P / 100) = 7500
⇒ P = Rs. 37,500
Hence, the correct answer is Rs. 37,500.
6. Let total work = LCM of 5, 2, and 4 = 20 units.
One day work of Raja and Rocky together = 20 / 5 = 4 units.
Two days work of Raja and Rocky together = 4 × 2 = 8 units.
Remaining work = 20 – 8 = 12 units.
One day work of Raja = 12 / 4 = 3 units.
One day work of Rocky = 4 – 3 = 1 unit.
Time taken by Rocky to complete the work = 20 / 1 = 20 days.
Hence, the correct answer is 20 days.
7. (35/100) × A = (25/100) × B
A/B = 5/7
So, A: B = 5:7
Hence, the correct answer is 5:7.
8. Let's check each option –
First option: UVD; U + 1 = V, Reverse of V is E → E – 1 = D
Second option: PQI; P + 1 = Q, Reverse of Q is J → J – 1 = I
Third option: JKZ; J + 1 = K, Reverse of K is P → P – 1 = O ≠ Z
Fourth option: EFT; E + 1 = F, Reverese of F is U → U – 1 = T
Therefore, the only the third option is different from the others as the letter must O instead of Z. Hence, the third option is correct.
9. Let's check the options –
First option: 14 – 193 ; 142 – 3 = 193
Second option:15 – 220 ; 152 – 5 = 220
Third option: 16 – 251; 162 – 5 = 251
Fourth option:17 – 284; 172 – 5 = 284
So, the first option is different from the other three options as 3 is subtracted from the square in place of 5. Hence, the first option is correct.
10. Given:
68 : 19 :: 76 : 21 :: 164 : ?
Divide the first number by 4 and then add 2 to the resultant number to obtain the second number.
Here, 68 : 19 → 68 ÷ 4 = 17 and 17 + 2 = 19
And, 76 : 21 → 76 ÷ 4 = 19 and 19 + 2 = 21
Similarly, follow the pattern for 164 –
164 ÷ 4 = 41 and 41 + 2 = 43
So, 43 is the required term in the given set of numbers. Hence, the third option is correct.
11. Both Leopards and Lions are animals. So, their circles will be inside that of animals.
But, Leopard and Lion are not related to each other. So, their circles will not have a common area.
The Venn diagram is as follows –
Hence, the third option is correct.
12. Given:
A + B ⇒ A is the father of B
A – B ⇒ A is the mother of B
A * B ⇒ A is the sister of B
A % B ⇒ A is the husband of B
As per the given information, the family tree will be as follows –
Here, the quadrilateral represents the male and the circular figure represents the female in the figure.
So, A is the father's father (paternal grandfather) of E. Hence, the first option is correct.
13. Given:
3, 13, 53, 213, ?, 3413
Multiply each term by 4 and add 1 to obtain the next term in the series –
3 × 4 + 1 = 13; 13 × 4 + 1 = 53; 53 × 4 + 1 = 213; 213 × 4 + 1 =853; 853 × 4 + 1 = 3413
So, 853 is the missing term in the series. Hence, the second option is correct.
14. . According to the statements, the following Venn diagram can be drawn –
Conclusion I: All yellow are roses – From the above Venn diagram, there is a direct relation between roses and yellow, but only some roses are yellow, not all. Therefore, this conclusion does not follow.
Conclusion II: Some buses are yellow – From the above Venn diagram, there is a direct relation between buses and yellow and it is clear that some buses are yellow. Therefore, this conclusion follows.
Conclusion III: All yellow are green – From the above Venn diagram, there is a direct relation between yellow and green but only some yellow are green, not all. Therefore, this conclusion does not follow.
Only conclusion II follows according to the statements. Hence, the third option is correct.
15. The correct answer is C++.
Operating systems include Linux, Windows 98 and Windows 7. The computer programming language is C++. Operating systems are pieces of software that manage computer hardware and software resources while also providing common services to computer programs. Programming languages are used to construct computer programs.
16. The correct option is Rashtrakuta.
Krishna III, also known as Karka III, was a prominent ruler of the Rashtrakuta dynasty. He reigned during the 10th century CE and played a significant role in the history of the Rashtrakuta dynasty in India. The Rashtrakutas were the greatest dynasty that ruled parts of the Indian subcontinent during the medieval period.
17. The correct answer is 1757.
On June 23, 1757, the British East India Company fought the Battle of Plassey against the Nawab of Bengal, Siraj-ud-Daulah. The battle was decisively won by the British, who now had complete control over India. Mir Jafar, the top Nawab commander, became a British traitor, paving the way for the British victory.
18. The correct option is The Muri Alumina Plant.
The Muri Alumina Plant in Jharkhand, India, is one of the country's oldest alumina refineries. It was founded in 1940, making it one of India's first aluminium refining factories. Hindalco Industries, a well-known Indian aluminium and copper manufacturer, maintains the factory. It converts bauxite into alumina, a critical intermediate product in the aluminium manufacturing process.
19. The correct answer is Penner
The Penner River flows through Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka. It begins in the Nandi Hills of Karnataka's Chikballapur District and runs through the districts of Anantapur, Kurnool and Prakasam in Andhra Pradesh before entering the Bay of Bengal. Bharathapuzha, Periyar and Pamba are the other three rivers that run through Kerala.
20. The correct option is Article 18
It prohibits the Indian state from conferring titles of nobility and also restricts citizens from accepting titles from foreign states. This is in line with the democratic principles of the Indian Republic.
21. The correct answer is elected head.
In the Indian Constitution, the term 'Republic' signifies that the country is a sovereign state in which the head of the state is an elected representative rather than a hereditary monarch. India, as a republic, has a President who is elected by an electoral college and serves as the ceremonial head of the state, representing the will of the people, with real political power vested in elected representatives.
Analyzing your mock test performance is a crucial step in preparing for the CAT exam. It allows you to understand your strengths and weaknesses, refine your study strategy, and improve your overall performance. Start by reviewing your overall score and the scores for each section to get a sense of your current standing. Look at the number of questions attempted, accuracy rate, and time spent on each section to evaluate your efficiency and effectiveness.
After taking a mock test, begin by reviewing your overall score and the scores for each section. Break down your performance by question type and difficulty level to get a detailed understanding of where you stand. Check the time spent on each question to identify if you are struggling with time management.
Look for patterns in your performance to identify your strengths and areas needing improvement. Note which types of questions you consistently answer correctly and which ones you find challenging. This helps you understand your proficiency in different topics and question formats.
Use the insights gained from your analysis to adjust your study plan. Focus more on the areas where you struggle, dedicating additional time to practice and understand those topics. Also, continue to strengthen your strong areas to ensure they remain a reliable part of your overall performance. Regularly updating your study strategy based on mock test analysis will make your preparation more targeted and effective.
Candidates can enhance their SUAT exam preparation with the help of selected SUAT exam preparation books. Careers360 have
eBook Title | Download Links |
3000+ Most Important Words - Vocabulary Builder | |
500+ Most Important Idioms and Phrases | |
300+ Most Important Phrasal Verbs | |
Permutation & Combination - Video Lectures and Practice Questions | |
Mastering DILR Questions with Expert Solutions |
The SUAT (Sharda University Admission Test) is typically conducted online as a Computer-Based Test (CBT). This means that candidates take the exam using a computer at designated test centres.
Yes, SUAT (Sharda University Admission Test) is generally compulsory for admission to Sharda University for most courses. However, there are exceptions and certain categories of candidates who may be exempted from taking SUAT. These exemptions could include candidates with qualifying scores in national-level entrance exams like JEE Main, CAT, MAT, XAT, or other equivalent exams recognized by the university. Candidates can refer to the official website for more information.
The SUAT (Sharda University Admission Test) is not considered very difficult. It covers subjects like English, Mathematics, General Awareness, Logical Reasoning, and specific knowledge related to the course you want to study. With good preparation and understanding of these subjects, many students find it manageable.
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