SUAT MBA Mock Test 2026: Free Practice Test, Exam Pattern, Sample Questions & Preparation Tips

SUAT Examination Pattern

To ace any entrance exams, individuals must be familiar with the examination format for the examination they are taking. The table below contains all of the required information about the MBA SUAT examination for candidates' reference.

SUAT Mock Test by Careers360

The SUAT Mock Test by Careers360 closely follows the latest SUAT exam pattern, allowing candidates to experience the actual test format before exam day. It includes questions from General English, Quantitative Aptitude, Logical Reasoning, and General Awareness, helping aspirants practise every section of the syllabus. Candidates can attempt the mock test multiple times to improve speed, accuracy, and question selection.

Key Features of SUAT MBA Mock Tests by Careers360

SUAT mock tests are pivotal in enhancing the candidate’s SUAT scores. Now let us discuss a few factors on why the SUAT MBA mock mocks designed by Careers360 stand out.

• This mock test is prepared after thorough research of the official sample papers released by Sharda University. Through this, the accurate syllabus and the chapter-wise exam weightage are followed for each section (Quantitative Aptitude, Logical Reasoning and General Awareness).

• For each question, elaborated answers written by subject matter experts are given. This helps the candidates understand the answers without any doubts.

• This SUAT mock test follows the same structure as mock tests. The answers to all 120 questions are given at the end of the mock test so that the candidates can refer to it whenever they need to. The difficulty level of the mock test is set to be the same as that can be expected in the actual SUAT exam.

Benefits of Attempting SUAT Mock Test 2026

The SUAT Mock Test 2026 is more than a practice resource, it helps candidates measure their preparation using real performance data. By analysing SUAT mock test results, aspirants can identify weak areas, improve time management, optimise question selection, and build a targeted revision strategy before the SUAT 2026 exam.

Identify Weak Topics

Every SUAT mock test highlights topics where you consistently lose marks. Instead of revising the entire syllabus, focus on low-scoring areas and strengthen them through concept revision and topic-wise practice.

Build an Attempt Strategy

Mock tests help determine the best order for attempting sections. After multiple SUAT mock tests, candidates can identify which sequence improves attempts, accuracy, and overall SUAT score.

Manage Time Better

Analyse how much time you spend on each section and question type. If certain questions consistently take longer, improve your solving approach or learn to skip them and return later during the SUAT exam.

Improve Question Selection

Regular SUAT mock test practice helps you quickly identify easy, moderate, and difficult questions. Attempting easier questions first improves overall accuracy and allows you to maximise attempts within the exam duration.

Plan Smarter Revision

Use your SUAT mock test analysis to prepare a revision plan. Prioritise topics where your accuracy is low instead of revising concepts you have already mastered, making your preparation more efficient.

Track Your Progress

Maintain a record of your SUAT mock test scores, sectional marks, accuracy, and time taken. Comparing multiple mock tests helps measure improvement and shows whether your preparation strategy is producing consistent results.

SUAT Sample Questions 2026

Some of the sample questions asked in the SUAT examination is given below:

1. The LCM of x2 − 8x + 15 and x2 − 5x + 6 is:

1. (x - 2) (x - 3) (x − 5)

2. (x − 6)2 (x + 1) (x − 3)

3. (x − 6) (x + 1) (x − 3)

4. (x+6) (x+1) (x-3)

2. The number 2918245 is divisible by which of the following numbers?

1. 3

2. 11

3. 12

4. 9

3. . A group of boys has an average weight of 36 kg. One boy weighing 42 kg leaves the group and another boy weighing 30 kg joins the group. If the average now becomes 35.7 kg, then how many boys are there in the group?

1. 30

2. 32

3. 40

4. 56

4. A and B start running at the same time and from the same point around a circle. If A can complete one round in 40 seconds and B in 50 seconds, how many seconds will it take to reach the starting point simultaneously?

1. 10

2. 200

3. 90

4. 2000

5. The simple interest on an amount for 6 years at 4% p.a. is 7,500 less than the simple interest on the same amount for 11 years. Find the amount.

1. 38,000

2. 37,500

3. 37,000

4. 38,500

6. Raja and Rocky together can complete painting work in 5 days. Together they both start painting, but after 2 days, Rocky falls sick and leaves the work. If Raja completes the remaining painting in 4 days, find the number of days in which Rocky alone can do the work.

1. 12 days

2. 15 days

3. 20 days

4. 10 days

7. If 35% of A's income is equal to 25% of B's income, then the ratio of A's income to B's income is:

1. 7:5

2. 5:7

3. 4:7

4. 4:3

8. Directions: Three of the following four-letter clusters are alike in a certain way and one is different. Pick the odd one out.

1. UVD

2. PQI

3. JKZ

4. EFT

9. Directions: Select the odd group of numbers. (NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g.13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /subtracting /multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed)

1. 14 – 193

2. 15 – 220

3. 16 – 251

4. 17 – 284

10. Directions: Select the option that is related to the fifth number in the same way as the second number is related to the first number and the fourth number is related to the third number.

68 : 19 :: 76 : 21 :: 164 : ?

1. 45

2. 39

3. 43

4. 41

11. Directions: Which of the following diagrams represents the relationship among Animal, Leopard, and Lion?

12. Directions: A + B means A is the father of B;

A – B means A is the mother of B;

A * B means A is the sister of B;

A % B means A is the husband of B.

If A % B – C + D * E, then how is A related to E?

1. Father’s father

2. Brother

3. Father’s brother

4. Father-in-law

13. Directions: Which number will replace the question mark (?) in the following series?

3, 13, 53, 213, ?, 3413

1. 1053

2. 853

3. 953

4. 753

14. Directions: In this question, three statements are given, followed by three conclusions numbered I, II, and III. Assuming the statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follows/follow from the statements.

Statements:

Some roses are yellow.

Some yellow are buses.

All buses are green.

Conclusions:

I. All yellow are roses.

II. Some buses are yellow.

III. All yellow are green.

1. Only conclusion III follows

2. None of the conclusions follows

3. Only conclusion II follows

4. Only conclusion I follows

15. Find the "odd one out".

1. Linux

2. Windows 98

3. C++

4. Windows 7

16. Krishna III of Manyakheta belonged to which dynasty?

1. Chera

2. Pala

3. Rashtrakuta

4. Gurjara-Pratihara

17. Battle of Plassey was fought between the English company and Nawab of Bengal in which year?

1. 1750

2. 1757

3. 1850

4. 1857

18. Which is the oldest aluminium refinery plant in India?

1. The Damanjodi Plant

2. The Muri Alumina Plant

3. The Mettur Plant

4. The Belgaum Plant

19. Which of the following rivers does not flow in Kerala State?

1. Bharathapuzha

2. Periyar

3. Pamba

4. Penner

20. Which Article of the Indian Constitution talks about 'abolition of the title'?

1. Article 18

2. Article 20

3. Article 19

4. Article 17

21. Which of the following options conveys the meaning of the word ‘Republic’ in the Indian Constitution?

1. Elected head

2. Nominated head

3. Nominated head

4. Nominated head

Answer Key

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1- A, 2- B, 3- C, 4- B, 5- B, 6- C, 7- B, 8- C, 9- A, 10- C, 11- C, 12- A, 13- B, 14- C, 15- C, 16- C, 17- B, 18- B, 19- D, 20- A, 21-A

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Solutions

1. x2 − 8x + 15 = (x – 3)(x – 5)

x2 − 5x + 6 = (x – 2)(x – 3)

So, LCM (x2 − 8x + 15, x2 − 5x + 6) = LCM((x – 3)(x – 5), (x – 2)(x – 3))

= (x - 2) (x - 3) (x − 5)

Hence, the answer is (x - 2) (x - 3) (x − 5).

2. Given number = 2918245

Divisibility rule for 3: A number is completely divisible by 3 if the sum of its digits is divisible by 3

⇒ 2 + 9 + 1 + 8 + 2 + 4 + 5

⇒ 31 which is not divisible by 3

⇒ The given number will not be divisible by 12 and 9 either.

Divisibility rule for 11: The difference between the sum of digits at the odd position and the sum of digits at the even position in a number is 0 or 11.

⇒ (2 + 1 + 2 + 5) - (9 + 8 + 4)

⇒ 10 - 21

⇒ -11, which is divisible by 11.

Hence, the correct answer is 11.

3. Let the number of boys be x.

The total weight of the boys is 36x kg.

Now one boy weighing 42 kg leaves the group and another boy weighing 30 kg joins the group,

⇒ Total weight of the boys = (36x – 42 + 30) = (36x – 12) kg

According to the question, (36x – 12)/x = 35.7

⇒ 36x – 35.7x = 12

⇒ x = 12/0.3 = 40

Therefore, the number of boys in the group is 40.

Hence, the correct answer is 40.

4. Given:

A and B start running at the same time and from the same point around a circle. If A can complete one round in 40 seconds and B in 50 seconds.

Here, the LCM of 40 and 50 is = 4 × 5 × 10 = 200

So, to reach the starting point simultaneously they will take 200 seconds.

Hence, the correct answer is 200 seconds.

5. Given: Rate = 4% for both cases

Time = 6 years for 1st case and 11 years for the second case.

Let the amount be P.

Simple interest = (Principal × Rate × Time) / 100

According to the question,

⇒ (P × 4 × 11) / 100 – (P × 4 × 6) / 100 = 7500

⇒ (44P / 100) – (24P / 100) = 7500

⇒ (20P / 100) = 7500

⇒ P = Rs. 37,500

Hence, the correct answer is Rs. 37,500.

6. Let total work = LCM of 5, 2, and 4 = 20 units.

One day work of Raja and Rocky together = 20 / 5 = 4 units.

Two days work of Raja and Rocky together = 4 × 2 = 8 units.

Remaining work = 20 – 8 = 12 units.

One day work of Raja = 12 / 4 = 3 units.

One day work of Rocky = 4 – 3 = 1 unit.

Time taken by Rocky to complete the work = 20 / 1 = 20 days.

Hence, the correct answer is 20 days.

7. (35/100) × A = (25/100) × B

A/B = 5/7

So, A: B = 5:7

Hence, the correct answer is 5:7.

8. Let's check each option –
First option: UVD; U + 1 = V, Reverse of V is E → E – 1 = D
Second option: PQI; P + 1 = Q, Reverse of Q is J → J – 1 = I
Third option: JKZ; J + 1 = K, Reverse of K is P → P – 1 = O ≠ Z
Fourth option: EFT; E + 1 = F, Reverese of F is U → U – 1 = T

Therefore, the only the third option is different from the others as the letter must O instead of Z. Hence, the third option is correct.

9. Let's check the options –
First option: 14 – 193 ; 142 – 3 = 193
Second option:15 – 220 ; 152 – 5 = 220
Third option: 16 – 251; 162 – 5 = 251
Fourth option:17 – 284; 172 – 5 = 284

So, the first option is different from the other three options as 3 is subtracted from the square in place of 5. Hence, the first option is correct.

10. Given:
68 : 19 :: 76 : 21 :: 164 : ?

Divide the first number by 4 and then add 2 to the resultant number to obtain the second number.
Here, 68 : 19 → 68 ÷ 4 = 17 and 17 + 2 = 19
And, 76 : 21 → 76 ÷ 4 = 19 and 19 + 2 = 21
Similarly, follow the pattern for 164 –
164 ÷ 4 = 41 and 41 + 2 = 43

So, 43 is the required term in the given set of numbers. Hence, the third option is correct.

11. Both Leopards and Lions are animals. So, their circles will be inside that of animals.
But, Leopard and Lion are not related to each other. So, their circles will not have a common area.
The Venn diagram is as follows –

Hence, the third option is correct.

12. Given:
A + B ⇒ A is the father of B
A – B ⇒ A is the mother of B
A * B ⇒ A is the sister of B
A % B ⇒ A is the husband of B

As per the given information, the family tree will be as follows –

Here, the quadrilateral represents the male and the circular figure represents the female in the figure.

So, A is the father's father (paternal grandfather) of E. Hence, the first option is correct.

13. Given:
3, 13, 53, 213, ?, 3413

Multiply each term by 4 and add 1 to obtain the next term in the series –
3 × 4 + 1 = 13; 13 × 4 + 1 = 53; 53 × 4 + 1 = 213; 213 × 4 + 1 =853; 853 × 4 + 1 = 3413

So, 853 is the missing term in the series. Hence, the second option is correct.

14. . According to the statements, the following Venn diagram can be drawn –

Conclusion I: All yellow are roses – From the above Venn diagram, there is a direct relation between roses and yellow, but only some roses are yellow, not all. Therefore, this conclusion does not follow.
Conclusion II: Some buses are yellow – From the above Venn diagram, there is a direct relation between buses and yellow and it is clear that some buses are yellow. Therefore, this conclusion follows.
Conclusion III: All yellow are green – From the above Venn diagram, there is a direct relation between yellow and green but only some yellow are green, not all. Therefore, this conclusion does not follow.

Only conclusion II follows according to the statements. Hence, the third option is correct.

15. The correct answer is C++.

Operating systems include Linux, Windows 98 and Windows 7. The computer programming language is C++. Operating systems are pieces of software that manage computer hardware and software resources while also providing common services to computer programs. Programming languages are used to construct computer programs.

16. The correct option is Rashtrakuta.

Krishna III, also known as Karka III, was a prominent ruler of the Rashtrakuta dynasty. He reigned during the 10th century CE and played a significant role in the history of the Rashtrakuta dynasty in India. The Rashtrakutas were the greatest dynasty that ruled parts of the Indian subcontinent during the medieval period.

17. The correct answer is 1757.

On June 23, 1757, the British East India Company fought the Battle of Plassey against the Nawab of Bengal, Siraj-ud-Daulah. The battle was decisively won by the British, who now had complete control over India. Mir Jafar, the top Nawab commander, became a British traitor, paving the way for the British victory.

18. The correct option is The Muri Alumina Plant.

The Muri Alumina Plant in Jharkhand, India, is one of the country's oldest alumina refineries. It was founded in 1940, making it one of India's first aluminium refining factories. Hindalco Industries, a well-known Indian aluminium and copper manufacturer, maintains the factory. It converts bauxite into alumina, a critical intermediate product in the aluminium manufacturing process.

19. The correct answer is Penner

The Penner River flows through Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka. It begins in the Nandi Hills of Karnataka's Chikballapur District and runs through the districts of Anantapur, Kurnool and Prakasam in Andhra Pradesh before entering the Bay of Bengal. Bharathapuzha, Periyar and Pamba are the other three rivers that run through Kerala.

20. The correct option is Article 18

It prohibits the Indian state from conferring titles of nobility and also restricts citizens from accepting titles from foreign states. This is in line with the democratic principles of the Indian Republic.

21. The correct answer is elected head.

In the Indian Constitution, the term 'Republic' signifies that the country is a sovereign state in which the head of the state is an elected representative rather than a hereditary monarch. India, as a republic, has a President who is elected by an electoral college and serves as the ceremonial head of the state, representing the will of the people, with real political power vested in elected representatives.

Other Useful Resources for SUAT Preparations

Along with the SUAT Mock Test, candidates can strengthen their preparation using Careers360's free SUAT preparation resources. These include SUAT eBooks, sample papers, previous year question papers, exam pattern guides, syllabus PDFs, preparation tips, and section-wise practice material. These resources help candidates understand important topics, revise concepts systematically