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The TANCET MBA exam was conducted on 22nd March 2025. Now that the TANCET MBA exam is concluded, it is the time for the candidates to go through the TANCET MBA exam analysis for a comprehensive understanding of the examination. Going through the TANCET MBA 2025 question paper with solutions will help the candidates identify their mistakes and devise a probable TANCET MBA score. The comprehensive TANCET MBA 2025 question paper analysis is provided in this article. Going through the TANCET MBA 2025 question paper analysis would help the candidates to gain more insights into the TANCET 2025 MBA examination. Through the contents of this article, the candidates can find the various TANCET MBA 2025 question paper with solutions as per the sections.
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The TANCET MBA Question Paper 2025 is expected to follow the same moderate level of difficulty with respect to the previous years. Going through the TANCET MBA 2025 question paper can be significantly helpful for the candidates to understand the examination well. They can also identify the various mistakes made by them and work on them to ensure that they do not make the same for any other upcoming management entrance examinations. The TANCET MBA Question Paper 2025 with solutions will be provided here for reference of the candidates on the examination day. Stay tuned and review this article regularly for frequent updates. Candidates can refer to the TANCET MBA 2025 question paper to analyze the exam pattern and difficulty level. Also, Solving the TANCET MBA 2025 question paper can help aspirants improve their time management and accuracy.
Question 1:
John weighs twice as much as Maria. Maria’s weight is 60% of Bob’s weight. Dave’s weight is 50% of Lee’s. Lee weighs 190% as much as John does. Which of these 5 persons weighs the least?
a. John
b. Dave
c. Maria
d. Bob
Correct Option: c
Answer: Let John's weight = 100. Maria = 50. Bob = 50/0.6 = 83.3
Lee = 190. Dave = 50% of Lee = 95 → Maria is lightest (option c)
Question 2:
A school sold drama tickets for Rs. 100 each for donating to an orphanage. One member sold 75% of his tickets and had 80 tickets left. How many tickets did the member collect?
a. 7,500
b. 10,000
c. 15,000
d. 24,000
Correct Option: d
Answer:
Let the total number of tickets received by the member be x.
He sold 75% of the tickets, so 25% remained unsold.
According to the question, 25% of x = 80 →
⇒ x = (80 × 100) / 25 = 320 tickets
Tickets sold = 320 - 80 = 240 tickets
Amount collected = 240 × 100 = Rs. 24,000
Hence, the correct answer is Option (d).
Question 3:
When two dice are thrown simultaneously, what is the probability that the sum of the two numbers is less than 13?
a. 1
b. 1/12
c. 1/6
d. 1/12
Correct Option: a
Answer: Maximum sum on two dice is 12, so probability(sum < 13) = 1
Question 4:
On a 120 kms racing track, if P and Q start driving in the same direction from the same point and at the same time, then P wins the race by 25 kms. If they drive towards each other from the opposite ends on the same track, starting at the same time, the distances that P and Q cover when they meet are in the ratio 3:2. Find the speed of P’s car.
a. 96 kmph
b. 48 kmph
c. 144 kmph
d. 172 kmph
Correct Option: c
Answer:
Let the speed of P be 3x kmph and the speed of Q be 2x kmph.
This is based on the ratio of distances covered by them (3:2) when meeting each other in the same time.
When driving in the same direction, Q takes 25 minutes (i.e., 25/60 hours) more than P to cover 120 km.
Time taken by P = 120 / 3x
Time taken by Q = 120 / 2x
Time difference = (120 / 2x) - (120 / 3x) = 25 / 60
Solving:
(120 / 2x) - (120 / 3x) = 25 / 60
⇒ (60 / x) = 25 / 60
⇒ x = (60 × 60) / 25 = 144
Speed of P = 3x = 3 × 48 = 144 kmph
Hence, the correct answer is Option (c).
Question 5:
If a merchant offers a discount of 40% on the marked price of his goods and thus ends up selling at cost price, what was the % mark up?
a. 28.57
b. 40
c. 66.66
d. 58.33
Correct Option: c
Answer:
Let cost price (CP) = Rs. 100
Since the discount is 40% on marked price (MP) and he sells at cost price,
Selling Price = CP = Rs. 100
So, 60% of MP = 100 → MP = 100 / 0.6 = Rs. 166.66
% Mark-up = (MP - CP)/CP × 100 = (166.66 - 100)/100 × 100 = 66.66%
Question 6:
The area of a square field is 24200 sq. m. How long will a man take to cross the field diagonally at the rate of 6.6 km/hr?
a. 3 minutes
b. 2 minutes
c. 4 minutes
d. 2 minutes 40 seconds
correct Option: - b
Answer:
Speed = 6.6 kmph = (6.6 × 1000)/60 = 110 m/min
Diagonal = 220 m (same)
Time = 220 / 110 = 2 minutes
Question 7:
The surface area of the three coterminous faces of a cuboid are 6, 15, 10 sq.cm respectively. Find the volume of the cuboid.
a. 30 cc
b. 20 cc
c. 40 cc
d. 35 cc
Correct Option: a
Answer:
Let sides of cuboid be a, b, c
ab = 6, bc = 10, ac = 15
Volume = √(ab × bc × ac) = √(6 × 10 × 15) = √900 = 30 cc
Question 8:
A solid metal cylinder of 10 cm height and 14 cm diameter is melted and re-cast into two cones in the proportion of 3:4 (volume), keeping the height 10 cm. What would be the percentage change in the flat surface area before and after?
a. 16
b. 25
c. 33
d. 50
Correct Option: d
Answer:
Let’s assume a unit constant k for surface area of each circular base of the cylinder and cones.
Flat surface area of cylinder = 1 base = πr² = 14k
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After recasting, we get two cones. Each cone has one circular base.
Flat surface area of cones (both bases) = 21k
So, change in flat surface area = 21k – 14k = 7k
% change = (7k / 14k) × 100 = 50%
Hence, the correct answer is Option (d) – 50%.
Question 9:
Find the remainder when the polynomial x³ – 3x² + 7x – 10 is divided by (x – 2).
a. 8
b. –20
c. 18
d. 0
Correct Option: d
Answer:
Use Remainder Theorem:
Put x = 2 → 2³ – 3(2²) + 7(2) – 10 = 8 – 12 + 14 –10 = 0
Correct remainder is 0 → Option (d)
Question 10:
On solving:
2p – 3q – 4r + 6r – 2q + p, the answer will be:
a. 8q – 5r
b. 10p + 3q – 5r
c. 3p – 5q + 2r
d. 7p + 5r
Correct Option: c
Answer:
Step 1: Write down the given expression:
2p – 3q – 4r + 6r – 2q + p
Step 2: Combine like terms:
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Final simplified expression = 3p – 5q + 2r
Hence, the correct answer is Option (c).
Classify the questions that follow the case under one of the following categories and record your response.
(a) A MAJOR OBJECTIVE in making the decision: one of the goals sought by the decision.
(b) A MAJOR FACTOR in making the decision: an aspect of the problem, specifically mentioned in the passage that fundamentally affects and/or determines the decision.
(c) A MINOR FACTOR in making the decision: a less important element bearing on or affecting a Major factor, rather than a Major Objective directly.
(d) An Unimportant issue in making the decision: an item lacking significant impact on or relationship to, the decision.
The railroad was not the first institution to impose regularity on society or to draw attention to the importance of precise timekeeping. For as long as merchants have set out their wares at day break and communal festivities have been celebrated, people have been in rough agreement with their neighbours as to the time of day. The value of tradition is today greater than ever. Were it not for public acceptance of a single yardstick of time, social life would be unbearably chaotic: The massive daily transfer of goods, services and information would proceed in fits and starts; the very fabric of modern society would begin to unravel.
1. An accepted way of measuring time is essential for the smooth functioning of society.
a. A Major Objective in making the decision: one of the goal sought by the decision
b. A Major factor in making the decision: an aspect of the problem, specifically mentioned in the passage that fundamentally affects and/or determines the decision
c. A Minor Factor in making the decision: a less important element bearing on or affecting a Major factor, rather than a Major Objective directly
d. An Unimportant issue in making the decision: an item lacking significant impact on or relationship to, the decision.
2. Society judges people by the time at which they conduct certain activities.
a. A Major Objective in making the decision: one of the goal sought by the decision
b. A Major factor in making the decision: an aspect of the problem, specifically mentioned in the passage that fundamentally affects and / or determines the decision
c. A Minor Factor in making the decision: a less important element bearing on or affecting a Major factor, rather than a Major Objective directly
d. An Unimportant issue in making the decision: an item lacking significant impact on or relationship to, the decision.
3. The Phrase 'this tradition' in the passage refers to people's agreement on the measurement of time.
a. A Major Objective in making the decision: one of the goal sought by the decision
b. A Major factor in making the decision: an aspect of the problem, specifically mentioned in the passage that fundamentally affects and / or determines the decision
c. A Minor Factor in making the decision: a less important element bearing on or affecting a Major factor, rather than a Major Objective directly
d. An Unimportant issue in making the decision: an item lacking significant impact on or relationship to, the decision.
4. Railroad supports precise time keeping.
a. A Major Objective in making the decision: one of the goal sought by the decision
b. A Major factor in making the decision: an aspect of the problem, specifically mentioned in the passage that fundamentally affects and / or determines the decision
c. A Minor Factor in making the decision: a less important element bearing on or affecting a Major factor, rather than a Major Objective directly
d. An Unimportant issue in making the decision: an item lacking significant impact on or relationship to, the decision.
5. Railroad enhances regularity.
a. A Major Objective in making the decision: one of the goal sought by the decision
b. A Major factor in making the decision: an aspect of the problem, specifically mentioned in the passage that fundamentally affects and / or determines the decision
c. A Minor Factor in making the decision: a less important element bearing on or affecting a Major factor, rather than a Major Objective directly
d. An Unimportant issue in making the decision: an item lacking significant impact on or relationship to, the decision.
Directions: Read the passage carefully and answer the questions given below it.
The fact that superior service can generate a competitive advantage for a company does not mean that every attempt at improving service will create such an advantage. Investments in service, like those in production and distribution, must be balanced against other types of investments on the basis of direct, tangible benefits such as cost reduction and increased revenues. If a company is already effectively on a par with its competitors because it provides service that avoids a damaging reputation and keeps customers from leaving at an unacceptable rate, then investment in higher service levels may be wasted, since service is a deciding factor for customers only in extreme situations.
This truth was not apparent to managers of one regional bank, which failed to improve its competitive position despite its investment in reducing the time a customer had to wait for a teller. The bank managers did not recognize the level of customer inertia in the consumer banking industry that arises from the inconvenience of switching banks. Nor did they analyze their service improvement to determine whether it would attract new customers by producing a new standard of service that would excite customers or by proving difficult for competitors to copy. The only merit of the improvement was that it could easily be described to customers.
Question 1:
The primary purpose of the passage is to
a. contrast possible outcomes of a type of business investment
b. suggest more careful evaluation of a type of business investment
c. illustrate various ways in which types of business investment could fail to enhance revenue
d. trace a general type of problem to a certain type of business investment
Correct Option: b
Answer: The passage focuses on how service investment must be evaluated carefully rather than assumed to yield advantage.
Question 2:
According to the passage, investment in service are comparable to investments in production and distribution in terms of the
a. tangibility of the benefits that they tend to confer
b. increased revenues that they ultimately produce
c. basis on which they need to be weighed
d. insufficient analysis that managers devote to them
Correct Option: c
Answer: The passage clearly states that service investments must be weighed like production and distribution investments based on tangible benefits.
Question 3:
The passage suggests which one of the following about service provided?
a. it enabled customers to retain customers at an acceptable rate
b. it was enough to weaken the bank’s competitive position with respect to other regional banks
c. it had already been improved after having caused damage to the bank’s reputation in the past
d. it was slightly superior to that of the bank’s regional competitors
Correct Option: a
Answer: The passage says service helps avoid a damaging reputation and losing customers at an unacceptable rate, so Option (a) fits best.
Question 4:
The passage suggests that bank managers failed to consider whether or not the service improvement mentioned
a. was too complicated to be easily described to prospective customers
b. made a measurable change in the bank’s office procedures
c. could be sustained if the number of customers increased significantly
d. was a unique initiative that competing banks could have imitated
Correct Option: d
Answer: The passage states they didn’t assess if the service would attract customers or be hard to imitate by competitors — hence Option (d).
Question 5:
The author uses the word “only” in the line 27 most likely in order to
a. highlight the edibility of the service improvement
b. emphasize the relatively low value of the investment in service improvement
c. distinguish the primary attribute of the service improvement from secondary attributes
d. single out a certain merit of the service improvement from other merits
Correct Option: b
Answer: The passage uses “only” to indicate that the sole benefit was its ease of description — implying low overall value.
For the questions that follow Choose an option from the below:
a. Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) ALONE is not sufficient
b. Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) ALONE is not sufficient
c. BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient
d. Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question asked, and additional data are needed
1. If x and y are positive integers then the following is always true?
2x – 3y < 0
(1) x = (y – 1)
(2) x > y
2. If x is an integer, find its value?
(1) x > 2
(2) x < 4
3. If n is a two-digit prime number, find the value of n
(1) The sum of digits is 16.
(2) When the digits of n are reversed the number obtained is a prime number.
4. If a and b are two distinct real numbers then which one of the following is always true?
(a + b) is always an irrational number.
(1) Both a and b are irrational numbers
(2) a is rational but b is irrational
5. Five students Atul, Bala, Chetan, Dev and Ernesto were the only ones who participated in a quiz contest. They were ranked based on their scores in the contest. Dev got a higher rank as compared to Ernesto, while Bala got a higher rank as compared to Chetan. Chetan’s rank was lower than the median. Who among the five got the highest rank?
(1) Atul was the last rank holder.
(2) Bala was not among the top two rank holders.
6. In a particular school, sixty students were athletes. Ten among them were also among the top academic performers. How many top academic performers were in the school?
(1) Sixty per cent of the top academic performers were not athletes.
(2) All the top academic performers were not necessarily athletes.
7. Is y an integer?
(1) y³ is an integer
(2) 3y is an integer
8. What is the standard deviation (SD) of the four numbers p, q, r, s?
(1) The sum of p, q, r, s is 24
(2) The sum of the squares of p, q, r and s is 224
9. Is the positive integer m divisible by 12?
(1) m is divisible by 6
(2) m is divisible by 3
10. What was the cost price of the suitcase purchased by Richard?
(1) Richard got 20% concession on the labelled price
(2) Richard sold the suitcase for Rs. 2,000 with 25% profit on the labelled price
Question 1:
The prices of essential commodities has risen unprecedentedly, causing a lot of hardship to the common man.
a. has rosen
b. has rising
c. have risen
d. No error
Correct Option: c
Answer: The correct verb form is "have risen" because the subject "prices" is plural.
Question 2:
Your admission into this university will be dependent on the marks you score in the entrance examination.
a. Is depending
b. Will depend
c. Depending
d. No error
Correct Option: b
Answer: "Will depend" is the correct future form, not "will be dependent on".
Question 3:
When he heard the siren, he started running to the door.
a. to run the door
b. running from the door
c. running towards the door
d. No error
Correct Option: c
Answer: "Running towards the door" is a more accurate and standard phrasing.
Question 4:
You need not come unless you want to.
a. You don’t need to come unless you want to
b. You come only when you want to
c. You come unless you don’t want to
d. No error
Correct Option: d
Answer: The sentence is grammatically correct in standard English.
Question 5:
Acquisition of certain specific skills can be facilitated from general awareness, and education to novel situation
a. can be facilitated by
b. may facilitate through
c. can be felicitated with
d. No error
Correct Option: a
Answer: The correct phrase is "can be facilitated by" rather than "facilitated from".
Question 6:
Which one of the following is a grammatically CORRECT sentence?
a. You had better told her everything, or else you will lose a friend.
b. You had better told her everything, or else you would lose a friend.
c. You had better tell her everything, or else you will lose a friend.
d. You better tell her everything, else you will lose a friend.
Correct Option: c
Answer: “Had better” should be followed by the base form of the verb → "tell".
Question 7:
Knowledge of the local language ______ the assimilation of the culture of the place.
a. strengthens
b. facilitates
c. promotes
d. hastens
Correct Option: b
Answer: “Facilitates” fits best in this context, as it means "makes easier".
Question 8:
Our teacher teaches English ______ maths.
a. beside
b. with
c. both
d. besides
Correct Option: b
Answer: “With” is the grammatically correct choice here – "teaches English with maths".
Question 9:
Please stop ______ so many mistakes.
a. to make
b. making
c. make
d. makes
Correct Option: b
Answer: After “stop,” the gerund form (verb+ing) is used → "making mistakes".
Question 10:
He got too tired ______ over work.
a. due of
b. due to
c. due on
d. due for
Correct Option: b
Answer: The correct phrase is “due to over work” meaning because of over work.
If the candidates wishes to find the answers to other questions that were present in the TANCET 2025 MBA question paper. They may download the ebook given below.
Title | Download Link |
TANCET MBA 2025 Question Paper with Solutions | Download Now |
According to Anna University, which has been conducting the TANCET MBA examination for the past years, there has been no change in the TANCET MBA examination pattern of the exam. The question paper will be divided into five sections, Business Analysis, Passage Comprehension, Analytical Reasoning, Data Sufficiency and Business Communication. The detailed examination pattern and the TANCET MBA exam syllabus are given below:
TANCET MBA 2025 Question Paper Pattern | |
Duration of the Test | 2 Hours |
Syllabi | The question paper will have the following sections: i) Evaluate the candidate’s ability to identify critically the data and apply the data to business decisions from typical business situations. ii) Evaluate the skill of the candidate in answering questions based on the passages in the comprehension. iii) Evaluate the skill of solving mathematical problems at the graduate level, including those learnt in plus two or equivalent level. iv) Test on determining data sufficiency for answering certain questions using the given data and the knowledge of mathematics and use of day-to-day facts. v) Test the knowledge of written English with questions on errors in usage, grammar, punctuation, etc. |
No. of questions | 100 |
No. of alternative answers | 4 |
Mark for every correct answer | 1 |
Max. marks | 100 |
Negative marks for every wrong answer | 1/4 |
Other Points | Multiple shading will be considered as wrong answer and 1/4 mark will be reduced. |
As the TANCET exam day comes closer, it will be beneficial for the candidates to understand a few TANCET exam day guidelines to attempt the question paper and make the most out of it. Some TANCET preparation tips are given below:
The candidates can download the previous year’s TANCET MBA question papers using the links given below.
Title | Download Now |
TANCET MBA Question Paper 2024 | |
TANCET Question Paper 2023 | |
TANCET Question Paper 2022 | |
TANCET MBA Question Paper 2015 | |
TANCET MBA Question Paper 2014 | |
TANCET MBA Question Paper 2013 |
The TANCET MBA exam has 100 multiple-choice questions across five sections, while the MCA exam has four sections, both with a 2-hour duration and a negative marking of one-forth per wrong answer.
A 70 percentile in TANCET is considered average and may help candidates secure admission to some private colleges or lower-tier government-aided institutions. However, it might not be enough for top universities like Anna University or other highly ranked MBA colleges. To get into a better institution, candidates should aim for a higher percentile, preferably 90+.
TANCET MBA is moderately difficult, meaning it is neither too easy nor extremely tough. The exam tests candidates on business analysis, reading comprehension, quantitative aptitude, and data sufficiency, requiring good time management and problem-solving skills.
TANCET does not have a fixed pass mark, but a score of 50+ is generally considered good for securing admission to decent colleges. Higher scores improve the chances of getting into top institutions like Anna University.
Hello,
TANCET is a popular entrance exam in Tamil Nadu for MBA aspirants. The exam evaluates candidate's aptitude in areas like quantitative ability, logical reasoning, verbal ability, and data interpretation.
TANCET scores are accepted by various colleges and universities in Tamil Nadu for their MBA programs.
You can get TANCET past year's question papers through the link below:
https://bschool.careers360.com/articles/tancet-mba-question-papers
Hope this helps,
Thank you
Hello aspirant,
The TANCET MBA question paper provides candidates with information on the test's format, probable themes, degree of difficulty, and other features. Using the TANCET MBA questions paper is one of the best ways for applicants to master the entrance exam and get a higher grade.
To obtain the TANCET past year's question papers, use the link provided below to visit our website.
https://bschool.careers360.com/articles/tancet-mba-question-papers
Thank you
Hope this information helps you.
Hello aspirant,
Through the use of the TANCET MBA question paper, candidates can learn about the format, likely themes, difficulty level, and other aspects of the test. One of the finest approaches for applicants to ace the entrance exam and score higher is to use the TANCET MBA questions paper.
To get the previous year question papers of TANCET, you can visit our website by clicking on the link given below.
https://bschool.careers360.com/articles/tancet-mba-question-papers
Thank you
Hope this information helps you.
A TANCET is a exam conducted for getting seat in good college of mba/march/mca/..the cuttoff marks depend on category and performance of student. Your percentile is 51.74 unnder BCM category. You have chance to get admission in university of madras chepauk college.
Hi aspirant...!
Hope you're doing great....!
So, with regard of you're query. Most likely in the second week of May, Anna University will host the TANCET MBA 2023 entrance exam. According to the TANCET MBA 2023 test format, the paper will be divided into five sections: Quantitative Ability, Verbal Ability, Logical Reasoning, General Knowledge, and Data Sufficiency. The TANCET MBA test pattern for 2023 includes the scoring system and the number of questions in each segment. A state-level exam known as TANCET is held for admission to MBA program in institutions in Tamil Nadu that accept the TANCET 2023 MBA score.
You can access prior year's papers by clicking the link below:
https://bschool.careers360.com/articles/tancet-mba-exam-pattern
Hope this will helps you...!
GOOD LUCK....!
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In a business analyst job role a lot of analysis is done, things are learned from past mistakes and the successful strategies are enhanced further. A business analyst goes through real-world data in order to provide the most feasible solutions to an organisation. Students can pursue Business Analytics to become Business Analysts.
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A Marketing manager plans and executes marketing initiatives to create demand for goods and services and increase consumer awareness of them. A marketing manager prevents unauthorised statements and informs the public that the business is doing everything to investigate and fix the line of products. Students can pursue an MBA in Marketing Management courses to become marketing managers.
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Digital marketing is growing, diverse, and is covering a wide variety of career paths. Each job function aids in the development of effective digital marketing strategies and techniques. The aims and objectives of the individuals who opt for a career as a digital marketing executive are similar to those of a marketing professional: to build brand awareness, promote company services or products, and increase conversions. Individuals who opt for a career as Digital Marketing Executives, unlike traditional marketing companies, communicate effectively through suitable technology platforms.
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