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The TANCET MBA exam will be held today, 22nd March 2025. Now that the TANCET MBA exam is concluded, it is the time for the candidates to go through the TANCET MBA exam analysis for a comprehensive understanding of the examination. Going through the TANCET MBA 2025 question paper with solutions will help the candidates identify their mistakes and devise a probable TANCET MBA score. The comphrehensive TANCET MBA 2025 question paper analysis is proved with this article. Going through the TANCET 2025 MBA question paper analysis would help the candidates to gain more insights into the TANCET 2025 MBA examination. Through the contents of this article, the candidates can find the various TANCET MBA 2025 question paper with solutions as per the sections.
Download TANCET MBA 2025 Question Paper with Solutions PDF
According to Anna University, which has been conducting the TANCET MBA examination for the past years, there has been no change in the TANCET MBA examination pattern of the exam. The question paper will be divided into five sections, Business Analysis, Passage Comprehension, Analytical Reasoning, Data Sufficiency and Business Communication. The detailed examination pattern and the TANCET MBA exam syllabus are given below:
TANCET MBA 2025 | |
Duration of the Test | 2 Hours |
Syllabi | The question paper will have the following sections: i) Evaluate the candidate’s ability to identify critically the data and apply the data to business decisions from typical business situations. ii) Evaluate the skill of the candidate in answering questions based on the passages in the comprehension. iii) Evaluate the skill of solving mathematical problems at the graduate level, including those learnt in plus two or equivalent level. iv) Test on determining data sufficiency for answering certain questions using the given data and the knowledge of mathematics and use of day-to-day facts. v) Test the knowledge of written English with questions on errors in usage, grammar, punctuation, etc. |
No. of questions | 100 |
No. of alternative answers | 4 |
Mark for every correct answer | 1 |
Max. marks | 100 |
Negative marks for every wrong answer | 1/4 |
Other Points | Multiple shading will be considered as wrong answer and 1/4 mark will be reduced. |
The TANCET MBA Question Paper 2025 is expected to follow the same moderate level difficulty as of the previous years. Going through the TANCET MBA 2025 question paper can be significantly helpful for the candidates to understand the examination well. They can also identify the various mistakes made by them and work on them to ensure that they do not make the same for any other upcoming management entrance examinations. The TANCET MBA Question Paper 2025 with solutions will be provided here for reference of the candidates on the examination day. Stay tuned and review this article regularly for frequent updates. Candidates can refer to the TANCET MBA 2025 question paper to analyze the exam pattern and difficulty level. Also, Solving the TANCET MBA 2025 question paper can help aspirants improve their time management and accuracy.
Classify the questions that follow the case under one of the following categories and record your response.
(a) A MAJOR OBJECTIVE in making the decision: one of the goals sought by the decision.
(b) A MAJOR FACTOR in making the decision: an aspect of the problem, specifically mentioned in the passage that fundamentally affects and/or determines the decision.
(c) A MINOR FACTOR in making the decision: a less important element bearing on or affecting a Major factor, rather than a Major Objective directly.
(d) An Unimportant issue in making the decision: an item lacking significant impact on or relationship to, the decision.
The railroad was not the first institution to impose regularity on society or to draw attention to the importance of precise time keeping. For as long as merchants have set out their wares at day break and communal festivities have been celebrated, people have been in rough agreement with their neighbors as to the time of day. The value of tradition is today greater than ever. Were it not for public acceptance of a single yardstick of time, social life would be unbearably chaotic: The massive daily transfer of goods, services and information would proceed in fits and starts; the very fabric of modern society would begin to unravel.
1. An accepted way of measuring time is essential for the smooth functioning of society.
a. A Major Objective in making the decision: one of the goal sought by the decision
b. A Major factor in making the decision: an aspect of the problem, specifically mentioned in the passage that fundamentally affects and / or determines the decision
c. A Minor Factor in making the decision: a less important element bearing on or affecting a Major factor, rather than a Major Objective directly
d. An Unimportant issue in making the decision: an item lacking significant impact on or relationship to, the decision.
2. Society judges people by the time at which they conduct certain activities.
a. A Major Objective in making the decision: one of the goal sought by the decision
b. A Major factor in making the decision: an aspect of the problem, specifically mentioned in the passage that fundamentally affects and / or determines the decision
c. A Minor Factor in making the decision: a less important element bearing on or affecting a Major factor, rather than a Major Objective directly
d. An Unimportant issue in making the decision: an item lacking significant impact on or relationship to, the decision.
3. The Phrase 'this tradition' in the passage refers to people's agreement on the measurement of time.
a. A Major Objective in making the decision: one of the goal sought by the decision
b. A Major factor in making the decision: an aspect of the problem, specifically mentioned in the passage that fundamentally affects and / or determines the decision
c. A Minor Factor in making the decision: a less important element bearing on or affecting a Major factor, rather than a Major Objective directly
d. An Unimportant issue in making the decision: an item lacking significant impact on or relationship to, the decision.
4. Railroad supports precise time keeping.
a. A Major Objective in making the decision: one of the goal sought by the decision
b. A Major factor in making the decision: an aspect of the problem, specifically mentioned in the passage that fundamentally affects and / or determines the decision
c. A Minor Factor in making the decision: a less important element bearing on or affecting a Major factor, rather than a Major Objective directly
d. An Unimportant issue in making the decision: an item lacking significant impact on or relationship to, the decision.
5. Railroad enhances regularity.
a. A Major Objective in making the decision: one of the goal sought by the decision
b. A Major factor in making the decision: an aspect of the problem, specifically mentioned in the passage that fundamentally affects and / or determines the decision
c. A Minor Factor in making the decision: a less important element bearing on or affecting a Major factor, rather than a Major Objective directly
d. An Unimportant issue in making the decision: an item lacking significant impact on or relationship to, the decision.
Directions: Read the passage carefully and answer the questions given below it.
The fact that superior service can generate a competitive advantage for a company does not mean that every attempt at improving service will create such an advantage. Investments in service, like those in production and distribution, must be balanced against other types of investments on the basis of direct, tangible benefits such as cost reduction and increased revenues. If a company is already effectively on a par with its competitors because it provides service that avoids a damaging reputation and keeps customers from leaving at an unacceptable rate, then investment in higher service levels may be wasted, since service is a deciding factor for customers only in extreme situations.
This truth was not apparent to managers of one regional bank, which failed to improve its competitive position despite its investment in reducing the time a customer had to wait for a teller. The bank managers did not recognize the level of customer inertia in the consumer banking industry that arises from the inconvenience of switching banks. Nor did they analyze their service improvement to determine whether it would attract new customers by producing a new standard of service that would excite customers or by proving difficult for competitors to copy. The only merit of the improvement was that it could easily be described to customers.
Question 1:
The primary purpose of the passage is to
a. contrast possible outcomes of a type of business investment
b. suggest more careful evaluation of a type of business investment
c. illustrate various ways in which types of business investment could fail to enhance revenue
d. trace a general type of problem to a certain type of business investment
Correct Option: b
Answer: The passage focuses on how service investment must be evaluated carefully rather than assumed to yield advantage.
Question 2:
According to the passage, investment in service are comparable to investments in production and distribution in terms of the
a. tangibility of the benefits that they tend to confer
b. increased revenues that they ultimately produce
c. basis on which they need to be weighed
d. insufficient analysis that managers devote to them
Correct Option: c
Answer: The passage clearly states that service investments must be weighed like production and distribution investments based on tangible benefits.
Question 3:
The passage suggests which one of the following about service provided?
a. it enabled customers to retain customers at an acceptable rate
b. it was enough to weaken the bank’s competitive position with respect to other regional banks
c. it had already been improved after having caused damage to the bank’s reputation in the past
d. it was slightly superior to that of the bank’s regional competitors
Correct Option: a
Answer: The passage says service helps avoid a damaging reputation and losing customers at an unacceptable rate, so Option (a) fits best.
Question 4:
The passage suggests that bank managers failed to consider whether or not the service improvement mentioned
a. was too complicated to be easily described to prospective customers
b. made a measurable change in the bank’s office procedures
c. could be sustained if the number of customers increased significantly
d. was a unique initiative that competing banks could have imitated
Correct Option: d
Answer: The passage states they didn’t assess if the service would attract customers or be hard to imitate by competitors — hence Option (d).
Question 5:
The author uses the word “only” in the line 27 most likely in order to
a. highlight the edibility of the service improvement
b. emphasize the relatively low value of the investment in service improvement
c. distinguish the primary attribute of the service improvement from secondary attributes
d. single out a certain merit of the service improvement from other merits
Correct Option: b
Answer: The passage uses “only” to indicate that the sole benefit was its ease of description — implying low overall value.
Question 1:
John weighs twice as much as Maria. Maria’s weight is 60% of Bob’s weight. Dave’s weight is 50% of Lee’s. Lee weighs 190% as much as John does. Which of these 5 persons weighs the least?
a. John
b. Dave
c. Maria
d. Bob
Correct Option: c
Answer: Let John's weight = 100. Maria = 50. Bob = 50/0.6 = 83.3
Lee = 190. Dave = 50% of Lee = 95 → Maria is lightest (option c)
Question 2:
A school sold drama tickets for Rs. 100 each for donating to an orphanage. One member sold 75% of his tickets and had 80 tickets left. How many tickets did the member collect?
a. 7,500
b. 10,000
c. 15,000
d. 24,000
Correct Option: d
Answer:
Let the total number of tickets received by the member be x.
He sold 75% of the tickets, so 25% remained unsold.
According to the question, 25% of x = 80 →
⇒ x = (80 × 100) / 25 = 320 tickets
Tickets sold = 320 - 80 = 240 tickets
Amount collected = 240 × 100 = Rs. 24,000
Hence, the correct answer is Option (d).
Question 3:
When two dice are thrown simultaneously, what is the probability that the sum of the two numbers is less than 13?
a. 1
b. 1/12
c. 1/6
d. 1/12
Correct Option: a
Answer: Maximum sum on two dice is 12, so probability(sum < 13) = 1
Question 4:
On a 120 kms racing track, if P and Q start driving in the same direction from the same point and at the same time, then P wins the race by 25 kms. If they drive towards each other from the opposite ends on the same track, starting at the same time, the distances that P and Q cover when they meet are in the ratio 3:2. Find the speed of P’s car.
a. 96 kmph
b. 48 kmph
c. 144 kmph
d. 172 kmph
Correct Option: c
Answer:
Let the speed of P be 3x kmph and the speed of Q be 2x kmph.
This is based on the ratio of distances covered by them (3:2) when meeting each other in the same time.
When driving in the same direction, Q takes 25 minutes (i.e., 25/60 hours) more than P to cover 120 km.
Time taken by P = 120 / 3x
Time taken by Q = 120 / 2x
Time difference = (120 / 2x) - (120 / 3x) = 25 / 60
Solving:
(120 / 2x) - (120 / 3x) = 25 / 60
⇒ (60 / x) = 25 / 60
⇒ x = (60 × 60) / 25 = 144
Speed of P = 3x = 3 × 48 = 144 kmph
Hence, the correct answer is Option (c).
Question 5:
If a merchant offers a discount of 40% on the marked price of his goods and thus ends up selling at cost price, what was the % mark up?
a. 28.57
b. 40
c. 66.66
d. 58.33
Correct Option: c
Answer:
Let cost price (CP) = Rs. 100
Since the discount is 40% on marked price (MP) and he sells at cost price,
Selling Price = CP = Rs. 100
So, 60% of MP = 100 → MP = 100 / 0.6 = Rs. 166.66
% Mark-up = (MP - CP)/CP × 100 = (166.66 - 100)/100 × 100 = 66.66%
Question 6:
The area of a square field is 24200 sq. m. How long will a man take to cross the field diagonally at the rate of 6.6 km/hr?
a. 3 minutes
b. 2 minutes
c. 4 minutes
d. 2 minutes 40 seconds
correct Option: - b
Answer:
Speed = 6.6 kmph = (6.6 × 1000)/60 = 110 m/min
Diagonal = 220 m (same)
Time = 220 / 110 = 2 minutes
Question 7:
The surface area of the three coterminous faces of a cuboid are 6, 15, 10 sq.cm respectively. Find the volume of the cuboid.
a. 30 cc
b. 20 cc
c. 40 cc
d. 35 cc
Correct Option: a
Answer:
Let sides of cuboid be a, b, c
ab = 6, bc = 10, ac = 15
Volume = √(ab × bc × ac) = √(6 × 10 × 15) = √900 = 30 cc
Question 8:
A solid metal cylinder of 10 cm height and 14 cm diameter is melted and re-cast into two cones in the proportion of 3:4 (volume), keeping the height 10 cm. What would be the percentage change in the flat surface area before and after?
a. 16
b. 25
c. 33
d. 50
Correct Option: d
Answer:
Let’s assume a unit constant k for surface area of each circular base of the cylinder and cones.
Flat surface area of cylinder = 1 base = πr² = 14k
After recasting, we get two cones. Each cone has one circular base.
Flat surface area of cones (both bases) = 21k
So, change in flat surface area = 21k – 14k = 7k
% change = (7k / 14k) × 100 = 50%
Hence, the correct answer is Option (d) – 50%.
Question 9:
Find the remainder when the polynomial x³ – 3x² + 7x – 10 is divided by (x – 2).
a. 8
b. –20
c. 18
d. 0
Correct Option: d
Answer:
Use Remainder Theorem:
Put x = 2 → 2³ – 3(2²) + 7(2) – 10 = 8 – 12 + 14 –10 = 0
Correct remainder is 0 → Option (d)
Question 10:
On solving:
2p – 3q – 4r + 6r – 2q + p, the answer will be:
a. 8q – 5r
b. 10p + 3q – 5r
c. 3p – 5q + 2r
d. 7p + 5r
Correct Option: c
Answer:
Step 1: Write down the given expression:
2p – 3q – 4r + 6r – 2q + p
Step 2: Combine like terms:
p terms: 2p + p = 3p
q terms: –3q – 2q = –5q
r terms: –4r + 6r = 2r
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Final simplified expression = 3p – 5q + 2r
Hence, the correct answer is Option (c).
For the questions that follow Choose an option from the below:
a. Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) ALONE is not sufficient
b. Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) ALONE is not sufficient
c. BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient
d. Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question asked, and additional data are needed
1. If x and y are positive integers then the following is always true?
2x – 3y < 0
(1) x = (y – 1)
(2) x > y
2. If x is an integer, find its value?
(1) x > 2
(2) x < 4
3. If n is a two-digit prime number, find the value of n
(1) The sum of digits is 16.
(2) When the digits of n are reversed the number obtained is a prime number.
4. If a and b are two distinct real numbers then which one of the following is always true?
(a + b) is always an irrational number.
(1) Both a and b are irrational numbers
(2) a is rational but b is irrational
5. Five students Atul, Bala, Chetan, Dev and Ernesto were the only ones who participated in a quiz contest. They were ranked based on their scores in the contest. Dev got a higher rank as compared to Ernesto, while Bala got a higher rank as compared to Chetan. Chetan’s rank was lower than the median. Who among the five got the highest rank?
(1) Atul was the last rank holder.
(2) Bala was not among the top two rank holders.
6. In a particular school, sixty students were athletes. Ten among them were also among the top academic performers. How many top academic performers were in the school?
(1) Sixty per cent of the top academic performers were not athletes.
(2) All the top academic performers were not necessarily athletes.
7. Is y an integer?
(1) y³ is an integer
(2) 3y is an integer
8. What is the standard deviation (SD) of the four numbers p, q, r, s?
(1) The sum of p, q, r, s is 24
(2) The sum of the squares of p, q, r and s is 224
9. Is the positive integer m divisible by 12?
(1) m is divisible by 6
(2) m is divisible by 3
10. What was the cost price of the suitcase purchased by Richard?
(1) Richard got 20% concession on the labelled price
(2) Richard sold the suitcase for Rs. 2,000 with 25% profit on the labelled price
Question 1:
The prices of essential commodities has risen unprecedentedly, causing a lot of hardship to the common man.
a. has rosen
b. has rising
c. have risen
d. No error
Correct Option: c
Answer: The correct verb form is "have risen" because the subject "prices" is plural.
Question 2:
Your admission into this university will be dependent on the marks you score in the entrance examination.
a. Is depending
b. Will depend
c. Depending
d. No error
Correct Option: b
Answer: "Will depend" is the correct future form, not "will be dependent on".
Question 3:
When he heard the siren, he started running to the door.
a. to run the door
b. running from the door
c. running towards the door
d. No error
Correct Option: c
Answer: "Running towards the door" is a more accurate and standard phrasing.
Question 4:
You need not come unless you want to.
a. You don’t need to come unless you want to
b. You come only when you want to
c. You come unless you don’t want to
d. No error
Correct Option: d
Answer: The sentence is grammatically correct in standard English.
Question 5:
Acquisition of certain specific skills can be facilitated from general awareness, education to novel situation
a. can be facilitated by
b. may facilitate through
c. can be felicitated with
d. No error
Correct Option: a
Answer: The correct phrase is "can be facilitated by" rather than "facilitated from".
Question 6:
Which one of the following is a grammatically CORRECT sentence?
a. You had better told her everything, or else you will lose a friend.
b. You had better told her everything, or else you would lose a friend.
c. You had better tell her everything, or else you will lose a friend.
d. You better tell her everything, else you will lose a friend.
Correct Option: c
Answer: “Had better” should be followed by the base form of the verb → "tell".
Question 7:
Knowledge of the local language ______ the assimilation of the culture of the place.
a. strengthens
b. facilitates
c. promotes
d. hastens
Correct Option: b
Answer: “Facilitates” fits best in this context, as it means "makes easier".
Question 8:
Our teacher teaches English ______ maths.
a. beside
b. with
c. both
d. besides
Correct Option: b
Answer: “With” is the grammatically correct choice here – "teaches English with maths".
Question 9:
Please stop ______ so many mistakes.
a. to make
b. making
c. make
d. makes
Correct Option: b
Answer: After “stop,” the gerund form (verb+ing) is used → "making mistakes".
Question 10:
He got too tired ______ over work.
a. due of
b. due to
c. due on
d. due for
Correct Option: b
Answer: The correct phrase is “due to over work” meaning because of over work.
As the TANCET exam day comes closer, it will be beneficial for the candidates to understand a few TANCET exam day guidelines to attempt the question paper and make the most out of it. Some TANCET preparation tips are given below:
Understand the Exam Structure: Before attending an examination, a comprehensive idea of the exam structure and syllabus is necessary for doing well in the exam. The same applies to the TANCET examination as well. The candidates should understand the various sections of the TANCET examination such as Business Analysis, Passage Comprehension, Analytical Reasoning, Data Sufficiency and Business Communication. They should also be aware of the marking scheme of the exam so that they can plan on how to approach the TANCET MBA 2025 question paper.
Effective Time Management: In the TANCET MBA examination, the candidates have to answer 100 questions within 2 hours. This gives them 72 seconds to solve each question. One ideal approach is to attempt the business communication section first as this section is not very lengthy and can be solved easily. The remaining time should be split among the other sections wisely. It advised that the candidates do not spend more than 24 minutes on a section.
Utilize Rough Work Efficiently: The TANCET MBA examination is conducted using the traditional pen-and-paper approach. The last few pages of the question paper will be reserved for rough works. The candidates are advised to use the given space for doing the calculations and noting the observations. Scribbling the question papers or doing unnecessary markings on the question paper may result in malpractice and debarring.
Be Mindful While Marking OMR: The OMR sheets must be handled with a lot of care. The conducting bodies have clearly stated that no new sheets will be given to the candidates in case of wrong responses. Also, while marking the answers, the candidates should ensure that they do not mark multiple options as this is also considered invalid and out of scope for evaluation.
Before attempting the TANCET MBA 2025 question paper, it is advisable for the candidates to go through the TANCET MBA 2024 questions. A few questions are listed below and the candidates are requested to go through them.
A sanctuary may be defined as a place where Man is passive and the rest of Nature active. Till quite recently Nature had her own sanctuaries, where man either did not go at all or only as a tool-using animal in comparatively small numbers. But now, in this machinery age, there is no place left where man cannot go with overwhelming forces at his command. He can strangle to death all the nobler wild life in the world today. Tomorrow he certainly will have done so, unless he exercises due foresight and self-control in the meantime.
There is not the slightest doubt that birds and mammals are now being killed off much faster than they can breed. And it is always the largest and noblest forms of life that suffer most. The whales and elephants, lions and eagles, go. The rats and flies, and all mean parasites, remain. This is inevitable in certain cases. But it is wanton killing off that I am speaking of tonight. Civilized man begins by destroying the very forms of wild life he learns to appreciate most when he becomes still more civilized. The obvious remedy is to begin conservation at an earlier stage, when it is easier and better in every way, by enforcing laws for close seasons, game preserves, the selective protection of certain species, and sanctuaries.
I have just defined a sanctuary as a place where man is passive and the rest of Nature active. But this general definition is too absolute for any special case. The mere fact that man has to protect a sanctuary does away with his purely passive attitude. Then, he can be beneficially active by destroying pests and parasites, like bot-flies or mosquitoes, and by finding antidotes for diseases like the epidemic which periodically kills off the rabbits and thus starves many of the carnivora to death. But, except in cases where experiment has proved his intervention to be beneficial, the less he upsets the balance of Nature the better, even when he tries to be an earthly Providence.
The author implies that his first definition of a sanctuary is:
a. Totally wrong
b. Somewhat idealistic
c. Unhelpful
d. Indefensible
The author’s argument that destroying bot-flies and mosquitoes would be a beneficial action is most weakened by all of the following except:
a. Parasites have an important role to play in the regulation of populations
b. The elimination of any species can have unpredictable effects on the balance of nature
c. The pests themselves are part of the food chain
d. These insects have been introduced to the area by human activities
It can be inferred that the passage is:
a. Part of an article in a scientific journal
b. Extracted from the minutes of a nature club
c. Part of a speech delivered to an educated audience
d. A speech delivered in a court of law
What should be the most appropriate central idea of this passage?
a. Author argues that man kills big animals but saves mosquitoes and other parasites
b. Man is selfish by nature so he is up against the wild life which is harmful for his survival
c. Ecological balance, if not maintained by man will be harmful in long run
d. Author proposes a programme for not disturbing the balance of nature as it is beneficial for mankind
Tone of the Author as expressed in the passage can be best described as:
a. Descriptive to analytical
b. Sarcastically humorous
c. Objective to narrative
d. Sarcastically critical to suggestive
Question 1:
If A + B means A is the mother of B; A – B means A is the brother of B; A % B means A is the father of B and A × B means A is the sister of B, which of the following shows that P is the maternal uncle of Q?
a. Q – N + M × P
b. P + S × N – Q
c. P – M + N × Q
d. Q – S % P
Question 2:
Satish starts from his house and takes two right turns and then one left turn. Now he is moving towards south. In which direction Satish started from his house?
a. North
b. West
c. South
d. East
Question 3:
Which is odd?
Tortoise, Crab, Frog, Fish
a. Tortoise
b. Crab
c. Frog
d. Fish
Question 4:
What is the number of straight lines and the number of triangles in the given figure?
a. 10 straight lines and 34 triangles
b. 9 straight lines and 34 triangles
c. 9 straight lines and 36 triangles
d. 10 straight lines and 36 triangles
Question 5:
Pointing to a man, a woman said, "His mother is the only daughter of my mother." How is the woman related to the man?
a. Mother
b. Daughter
c. Sister
d. Grand Mother
DIRECTIONS:
Data Sufficiency problems consist of a question and two statements, labeled (I) and (II), in which certain data are given. You have to decide whether the data given in the statements are sufficient for answering the question.
Use the data given, plus your knowledge of mathematics and everyday facts, to mark your answer as:
a. If the question can be answered with the help of Statement I alone.
b. If the question can be answered with the help of Statement II alone.
c. If both, Statement I and Statement II together are needed to answer the question.
d. If the question cannot be answered even with the help of both statements.
Question 1:
Among P, Q, R, S, T, and U who is the heaviest?
I. P is heavier than T and U and he is the second heaviest in the group.
II. S is heavier than Q but not the heaviest.
Question 2:
Which direction is Raju facing at the moment?
I. Raju took 2 consecutive right turns after covering a distance of 6m to reach the point X.
II. After walking 4m early morning from point X, Raju is facing opposite direction of the sun.
Question 3:
What is the speed of the boat in still water?
I. The boat covers a distance of 48 kms in 6 hours while running upstream.
II. The boat covers the same distance in 4 hours while running downstream.
Question 4:
How many daughters does M have?
I. P and Q are the only daughters of N.
II. D is brother of P and son of M.
Question 5:
Is xy < 15?
I. 0.5 < x < 1, and y² = 144
II. x < 3, y < 5
DIRECTIONS: In this question, you are required to spot the error in the sentence. Choose and mark the part with the error.
Question 1:
The committee has been given a wide-ranging mandate that included examining the feasibility of a national law to ban cow slaughter by amending the Constitution.
a. The committee has been given a wide-ranging
b. Mandate that included examining the feasibility
c. Of a national law to ban cow
d. Slaughter by amending the constitution
Question 2:
We are always looking for ways to operate effectively to serve our members. This requires as to review our corporate structure to ensure that we are organized in the right way to best meet the needs of our members.
a. We are always looking for ways to operate
b. Effectively to serve our members
c. This requires as to review our corporate structure to ensure
d. That we are organized in the right way to best meet the needs of our members
DIRECTIONS: Choose the synonym for the word given.
Question 3:
Profuse
a. Economical
b. Sporadic
c. Abundant
d. Thrifty
Question 4 :
Derogatory
a. Complimentary
b. Belittling
c. Flattering
d. Laudative
DIRECTIONS: Pick out the most effective word to make the sentence meaningfully complete.
Question 5:
Surveillance cameras are ________ these days. These cameras have obvious benefits.
a. Ubiquitous
b. Unique
c. Sporadic
d. Freakish
The candidates can download the previous year’s TANCET MBA question papers using the links given below.
Title | Download Now |
TANCET MBA Question Paper 2024 | |
TANCET Question Paper 2023 | |
TANCET Question Paper 2022 | |
TANCET MBA Question Paper 2015 | |
TANCET MBA Question Paper 2014 | |
TANCET MBA Question Paper 2013 |
The TANCET MBA exam has 100 multiple-choice questions across five sections, while the MCA exam has four sections, both with a 2-hour duration and a negative marking of one-forth per wrong answer.
A 70 percentile in TANCET is considered average and may help candidates secure admission to some private colleges or lower-tier government-aided institutions. However, it might not be enough for top universities like Anna University or other highly ranked MBA colleges. To get into a better institution, candidates should aim for a higher percentile, preferably 90+.
TANCET MBA is moderately difficult, meaning it is neither too easy nor extremely tough. The exam tests candidates on business analysis, reading comprehension, quantitative aptitude, and data sufficiency, requiring good time management and problem-solving skills.
TANCET does not have a fixed pass mark, but a score of 50+ is generally considered good for securing admission to decent colleges. Higher scores improve the chances of getting into top institutions like Anna University.
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Here is the link where you can download previous year question papers :- TANCET Previous Year Question Papers
You can also access free resources to prepare for TANCET :- TANCET E-books and Sample Papers
Hope it helps !
Hello there,
Admission to M.Sc. Medical Microbiology in Tamil Nadu can be based on either merit (performance in B.Sc.) or through an entrance exam like TANCET (Tamil Nadu Common Entrance Test), depending on the university or institute.
Check the specific admission guidelines of the college or university you are applying to.
I hope this answer helps you. If you have more queries, then feel free to share your questions with us, we will be happy to assist you.
Thank you, and I wish you all the best in your bright future.
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If you are facing an "image file extension error" while viewing your TANCET application , try the following:
Hope you find it useful !
As of February 28, 2025, if you've submitted your TANCET application with an incorrect pixel format for your signature, you have the opportunity to correct this error. Anna University has identified applications with discrepancies and has provided a correction window from February 28 to March 2, 2025. To rectify your application, log in to the official TANCET portal and make the necessary changes before the deadline. For further assistance, you can contact the admissions office at 044 - 2235 8314 or via email
Hello there,
If you have entered the wrong passing year of your SSLC (10th grade) in the TANCET application , it could cause issues during the verification process or when you're submitting documents for admission.
Here's what you can do:
Check for Edit Option
: Log in to your TANCET application portal and check if there is an option to
edit or modify
the application form. Some portals allow editing until a specific deadline.
Contact TANCET Helpline : If you cannot edit it yourself, contact the TANCET helpdesk immediately. They can guide you on how to rectify the mistake.
Mailing the Authorities
: If no direct contact is available, send an email explaining the mistake and request them to correct it. Attach any necessary documents to support your claim.
Possible Issues:
Make sure to rectify this soon to avoid any last-minute problems.
I hope this answer helps you. If you have more queries then feel free to share your questions with us we will be happy to assist you.
Thank you and wishing you all the best for your bright future.
A career as Marketing Director is also known as a marketing expert who is responsible for the overall marketing aspect of the company. He or she oversees plans and develops the company's budget. The marketing Director collaborates with the business team to plan and develop the marketing and branding strategies for the company's products or services.
A Business Development Executive (BDE) is a professional responsible for identifying growth opportunities and fostering strategic partnerships to enhance a company's market position. Typically, a BDE conducts market research, analyses industry trends, and identifies potential clients or business prospects. He or she plays a crucial role in developing and implementing sales strategies to achieve revenue targets.
A BDE often collaborates with cross-functional teams, including marketing and product development, to align business objectives. Strong communication, negotiation, and relationship-building skills are essential for success in this role. BDE strives to expand the company's customer base, drive sales, and contribute to overall organisational growth in a dynamic and competitive business environment.
Content Marketing Specialists are also known as Content Specialists. They are responsible for crafting content, editing and developing it to meet the requirements of digital marketing campaigns. To ensure that the material created is consistent with the overall aims of a digital marketing campaign, content marketing specialists work closely with SEO and digital marketing professionals.
A sales manager is a revenue-generating source for a company. Any organisation or company which sells a commodity or service requires sales to generate revenue. A Sales manager is a professional responsible for supervising the sales team. An Individual as a sales manager works closely with salespeople, assigns sales territories, sets quotas, mentors the members of the sales, assigns sales training, and builds a sales plan.
The Sales Manager work also includes hiring and laying off sales personnel after evaluating his or her work performance. In bigger entities, sales quotas and plans are usually set at the executive level. He or she is responsible for overseeing the set target or quotas met by salespeople or upholding any policy. He or she guides his or her fellow salespeople and allows them to sell.
Individuals who opt for a career as a business analyst look at how a company operates. He or she conducts research and analyses data to improve his or her knowledge about the company. This is required so that an individual can suggest the company strategies for improving their operations and processes.
In a business analyst job role a lot of analysis is done, things are learned from past mistakes and the successful strategies are enhanced further. A business analyst goes through real-world data in order to provide the most feasible solutions to an organisation. Students can pursue Business Analytics to become Business Analysts.
A marketing manager is a person who oversees a company or product marketing. He or she can be in charge of multiple programmes or goods or can be in charge of one product. He or she is enthusiastic, organised, and very diligent in meeting financial constraints. He or she works with other team members to produce advertising campaigns and decides if a new product or service is marketable.
A Marketing manager plans and executes marketing initiatives to create demand for goods and services and increase consumer awareness of them. A marketing manager prevents unauthorised statements and informs the public that the business is doing everything to investigate and fix the line of products. Students can pursue an MBA in Marketing Management courses to become marketing managers.
An SEO Analyst is a web professional who is proficient in the implementation of SEO strategies to target more keywords to improve the reach of the content on search engines. He or she provides support to acquire the goals and success of the client’s campaigns.
Digital marketing is growing, diverse, and is covering a wide variety of career paths. Each job function aids in the development of effective digital marketing strategies and techniques. The aims and objectives of the individuals who opt for a career as a digital marketing executive are similar to those of a marketing professional: to build brand awareness, promote company services or products, and increase conversions. Individuals who opt for a career as Digital Marketing Executives, unlike traditional marketing companies, communicate effectively through suitable technology platforms.
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