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The IPMAT (Integrated Program in Management Aptitude Test) exam is conducted by the Indian Institute of Management (IIM). IPMAT exam is conducted in computerbased mode. The previous year IPMAT question papers and IPMAT sample paper help the candidates understand the exam pattern and to know the type of questions, topics, and level of difficulty.
The IPMAT 2024 Exam was conducted on May 23, 2024. Download the IPMAT last year question papers and use them for practice and to improve your speed and accuracy. Read this article to know more about where to download the IPMAT question paper with answer pdf, etc.
The previous year IPMAT question papers help candidates assess their aptitude and testtaking skills and provides them with valuable insights on how to approach the IPMAT exam. By solving the IPMAT last year paper and using IPMAT Mock Test PDFs candidates can tremendously improve their time management skills, speed, and accuracy.
Download the free IPMAT exam official question papers and practice with them to ramp up your IPMAT preparation.
IPMAT Year  IPMAT Question Paper Download Link 
IPMAT 2021  
IPMAT 2020  
IPMAT 2019 
Candidates can follow the simple steps below to download previous IPMAT previous year papers pdf:
Candidates who want to appear for the IPMAT Exam must be familiar with the structure of the question paper. Below is an overview of the IPMAT question paper based on the previous year questions.
Components  IPMAT exam details 
IPMAT Indore exam time  120 minutes (2 hours) 
Time allotted to each section  40 minutes 
Exam mode  Online 
Number of sections  Three, namely; Quantitative ability (MCQs) Quantitative ability (short answer questions) Verbal ability (MCQs) 
Types of questions  Shortanswer questions and multiplechoice questions 
IPMAT Indore marking scheme  Candidates will be awarded 4 marks for each correct answer and there will be 1 negative marking for wrong answers 
IPMAT total marks  400 marks 
Using IPMAT previous year papers with answers as a part of your preparation strategy can be highly beneficial. By keeping the following points in mind, you can maximize the benefits:
Analyze the distribution of questions across IPMAT sections (Quantitative Ability, Verbal Ability, and Logical Reasoning) and their respective weightage. This will help you understand which areas/topics are more frequently tested and prioritize your preparation accordingly.
By going through IPMAT question paper pdfs, you can identify recurring topics or types of questions that are commonly asked. Focus more on these areas as they are likely to be important. In these papers, you'll find IPMAT Geometry questions, IPMAT Log questions, IPMAT percentage questions, IPMAT algebra questions, and IPMAT trigonometry questions. In the verbal ability questions, you can find IPMAT grammar syllabus questions.
Solve the IPMAT previous year papers within the stipulated time limit to practice time management. This will help you improve your speed and accuracy, crucial for competitive exams like IPMAT.
While solving the IPMAT previous year questions papers, you must make notes of easy and difficult questions so you can make your preparation ahead accordingly and keep revising difficult concepts. The notes can be used as a quick reference guide.
Q1. The sum of the interior angles of a convex nsided polygon is less than 2019. The maximum possible value of n is ______
Ans: Sum of the interior angles of polygon = (n2). 180
=> (n2). 180 < 2019
=> 180n – 360 < 2019
=> 180n < 2379
=> n < 2379/180
=> n < 13.21 {No. of sides must be an integer}
so maximum possible value of n = 13.
Q2. Three friends divided some apples in the ratio 3:5:7 among themselves. After consuming 16 apples they found that the remaining number of apples with them was equal to largest number of apples received by one of them at the beginning. Total number of apples these friends initially had was _____
Ans: Let three friends are A, B, C, A: B: C = 3:5:7,
So, A = 3x, B = 5x, C = 7x, Total apples = 15x
After consuming 16 apples remaining apples = 15x 16;
As given in the question, remaining apples = largest number of apples received by one of them at the beginning.
So, 15x16 = 7x
8x = 16; x = 2
So, total number of apples = 15x = 15 x 2 = 30.
Q3. A shopkeeper reduces the price of a pen by 25% as a result of which the sales quantity increased by 20%. If the revenue made by the shopkeeper decreases by x% then x is
Ans: A = B X C
If percentage change in B and C is x% & y% then effective percentage change in A will be equal to (x + y + x.y/100) %. [Successive percentage change]
Revenue = Price of pen x Sales quantity
Percentage change x%+25%+20%
As per above explained formula percentage change in revenue = (25+20+25 x 20/100) %
X % = 50%.
Q4. The average of five distinct integers is 110 and the smallest number among them is 100. The maximum possible value of the largest integer is _____
Ans: Let five distinct integers are A,B,C,D & E, where A is smallest and E is largest.
As given, A=100
Average = 110
For maximum value of E, other values must be minimum;
As all integers are distinct; If A = 100, B = 101, C = 102, D = 103
On putting value in equation (1), E = 550 – 100 101 102 – 103 = 144.
Q5. The number of whole metallic tiles that can be produced by melting and recasting a circular metallic plate, if each of the tiles has a shape of a rightangled isosceles triangle and the circular plate has a radius equal in length to the longest side of the tile (Assume that the tiles and plate are of uniform thickness, and there is no loss of material in the melting and recasting process) is ______
Ans:
Assume that the tiles and plate are of uniform thickness, and there is no loss of material in the melting and recasting process.
Let radius of circle = r
Length of longest side of rightangled isosceles triangle = r {Hypotenuse}
So, area of the triangle = (Hypo.)2 / 4 = r2/4
No. of triangles(N) X Area of triangle = Area of metallic circular plate
So, number of whole metallic tiles that can be produced by melting and recasting a circular metallic plate = 12.
Q6. If the compound interest earned on a certain sum for 2 years is twice the amount of simple interest for 2 years, then the rate of interest per annum is percent
a) 200%
b) 2%
c) 4%
d) 400%
Correct option: a)
Ans: let P= Principal, R = Rate of interest; Time = 2 years (given)
Compound Interest (C.I.) = 2 x Simple Interest (S.I.)
Q7. The maximum value of the natural number n for which 21n divides 50! is
a) 6
b) 7
c) 8
d) 9
Correct option: c)
Ans:
To factorize 50!, IGP (Index of greatest power) is found out for prime numbers. But in this case divisor is 21n, (3 x 7)n so only IGP of 3 & 7 is required.
IGP of 3 in 50! = 22
IGP of 7 in 50! = 8
50! = 322 x 78
50! / 21n = 50! / (3 x 7)n;
In this case numerator has max 8 power of 7, so denominator can’t have more than 8 power of 7
So, maximum possible value of n = 8
Q8. Placing which of the following two digits at the right end of 4530 makes the resultant sixdigit number divisible by 6,7 and 9?
a) 96
b) 78
c) 42
d) 54
Correct option: a)
Ans:
On putting values as per options:
a. 453096 Sum of digits = 27
b. 453078 Sum of digits = 27
c. 453042 Sum of digits = 18
d. 453054 Sum of digits = 21
On the basis of this we can say that option (d) is eliminated as sum of digits is not divisible by 9 but all other numbers satisfy condition as per divisibility rule of 6 & 9.
Now, for 7 we can divide other three options and check.
Q9. The inequality log23x12x<1 holds true for
a) x13,1
b) x13,2
c) x0,13∪(1,2)
d) x∈(∞,1)
Correct option: d)
Ans: log23x12x<1
=> 3x12x < 21
=> 3x1 < 2 (2x) => 3x1 < 4 – 2x
=> 5x < 5 => x < 1
Q10. The number of terms common to both the arithmetic progressions 2,5,8,11,...., 179 and 3,5,7,9,....., 101 is
a. 17
b. 16
c. 19
d. 15
Correct option: a)
Ans: A.P. 1 => 2,5,8,11……..179 {Common Difference d1=3}
A.P. 2 => 3,5,7,9………..101 {Common Difference d2=2}
Common sequence:
Common difference d = lcm {d1, d2} = lcm {3,2} = 6
From both sequences, first common term 5, then next term will be 11.
So, sequence 5,11,17,……..
nth term must be less than or equal to 101 {which is last & least term out of both sequences}
Q1. The probability that a randomly chosen factor of 1019 is a multiple of 1015 is
a) 125
b) 112
c) 120
d) 116
Correct option: d)
Ans: 1019 = 219 x 519
Total no. of factors = (19+1). (19+1) = 400
To find out no. of factors of 1019 which are multiple of 1015, find the factors of remaining part in no. after excluding 1015.
1019 = 1015 x 104 = 1015 x 24 x 54
No. of factors of 1019 which are multiple of 1015= (4+1). (4+1) = 25
Probability = favorable outcomes/ total no. of outcomes
= No. of factors of 1019 which are multiple of 1015 / Total no. of factors
= 25/400 = 1/16
Q2. The number of acute angled triangles whose sides are three consecutive positive integers and whose perimeter is at most 100 is
a) 28
b) 29
c) 31
d) 33
Correct option: b)
Ans:
If three sides are consecutive, then possible sides of triangle are (1,2,3), (2,3,4), (3,4,5), (4,5,6)…………..
For acute angle triangle, triangle should follow following two conditions:
Sum of any two sides must be greater than the third one.
So, as per this condition (1,2,3) can’t be sides of any triangle.
Square of the greatest side must be less than the sum of squares of other two sides.
Ex: If sides of triangle are (a,b,c), where c is the greatest side then for acute angle triangle c2 < a2 + b2.
Hence, (2,3,4) & (3,4,5) doesn’t satisfy the condition of acute angle triangle.
Sides Perimeter (Sum of sides)
(1,2,3) 6
(2,3,4) 9
(3,4,5) 12
.
.
.
(32,33,34) 99
Out of these pairs first doesn’t satisfy as per condition (i) and second & third pair doesn’t satisfy the condition (ii) given and required.
So, no. of possible pairs of triangles is 29.
Q3. The equation of the straight line passing through the point P(5,1), such that the portion of it between the axes is divided by the point P in to two equal halves, is
a) 10y8x=80
b) 8y+10x=80
c) 10y+8x=80
d) 8y+10x+80=0
Correct option: a)
Ans:
The point P divides AB into 2 halves.
AP = PB
A is on the x axis, Hence Point A (h,0)
B is on the Y axis, Hence Point B (0,k)
Using midpoint formula.
[(ℎ+0)/2,(?+0)/2] = (5 , 4)
h/2 =  5 => h = 10
k/2 = 4 => k = 8
Hence the Y intercept is 8 and X intercept is  10.
x/(10) + y/8 = 1
8x + 10y = 80
The equation is 8x + 10y = 80
Q4. A man is known to speak the truth on an average 4 out of 5 times. He throws a die and reports that it is a five. The probability that it is actually a five is
a) 49
b) 59
c) 415
d) 215
Correct option: d)
Ans: Probability of speaking truth P(T) = 4/5
Probability of appearing 5 on dice P(5) = 1/6
He throws a die and reports that it is a five, the probability that it is actually a five is
= P(T) x P(5) = 4/5 x 1/6 = 2/15
Q5. Consider the following statements:
(i) When 0<x<1, then 11+x<1x+x2.
(ii) When 0<x<1, then 11+x>1x+x2.
(iii) When 1<x<0, then 11+x<1x+x2.
(iv) When 1<x<0, then 11+x>1x+x2.
Then the correct statements are
a) (i) and (ii)
b) (ii) and (iv)
c) (i) and (iv)
d) (ii) and (iii)
Correct option: c)
Ans:
Let’s compare these 2 inequalities, 11+x<1x+x2.
1x + x2 – (1/1+x) > 0
(1 + x3 1)/(1+x) > 0
x3/(1+x) > 0
This inequality holds good when x is positive and when both numerator & denominator are negative.
Hence the correct answer is (i) and (iv).
Q6. In a division problem, product of quotient and the remainder is 24 while their sum is 10. If the divisor is 5 then dividend is ______
Ans: Dividend (N) = Quotient(Q) x Divisor(D) + Remainder (R)
Given Q x R = 24………. Equation (1)
Q + R = 10………Equation (2)
By solving both equations (Either proper method or hit & trial)
Two possible values, (i) Q = 6 & R = 4
(ii) Q = 4 & R = 6 {This is not possible as remainder must be less than divisor}
So, only possible values are Q=6 & R=4,
So, N = Q X D + R
N = 6 x 5 + 4 = 34.
Q7. Ashok purchased pens and pencils in the ratio 2:3 during his first visit and paid Rs. 86 to the shopkeeper. During his second visit, he purchased pens and pencils in the ratio 4:1 and paid Rs. 112. The cost of a pen as well as a pencil in rupees is a positive integer. If Ashok purchased four pens during his second visit, then the amount he paid in rupees for the pens during the second visit is ______
Ans:
First Visit
Ratio of pen: pencil is 2:3 and he spends Rs 86
Let price of pen be 'x' and price of pencil be 'y', as nothing is given related to no. of pen and pencils, so there are multiple possibilities
2x + 3y = 86 (or)
4x + 6y = 86 (or)
6x + 9y = 86 ………..
Second Visit
Ratio of pen and pencil is 4:1 and he spends Rs 112
It is given that he purchased 4 pens.
Hence, he purchased 4 pens and 1 pencil (as per ratio)
Then,
4x + y = 112
Since, from second visit, 4 pen and a pencil costs Rs 112
so, if more than 4 pens and 1 pencil are bought then the cost must be more than 112.
As per above discussion, only 2x + 3y = 86 is possible in first visit.
From first visit 2x + 3y = 86
From second visit 4x + y = 112
On solving both equations, We get y = 12, x = 25.
He paid Rs 100 during his second visit for the pens.
Q8. In a fourdigit number, the product of thousands digit and unit digit are zero while their difference is 7. Product of the middle digits is 18. The thousands digit is as much more than the unit digit as the hundreds digit is more than the tens digit. The fourdigit number is_____
Ans:
In the given 4digit number, the product of thousands digit and unit digit is zero. If product of two digits is zero that means either both digits are zero or one of them is zero. As thousandth digit cannot be zero, then unit digit is zero.
__ __ __ 0
Given: Thousands digit and digit difference is 7, that means thousands digit is 7
7 __ __ 0
Given: Product of middle digits is 18 and difference is same as between thousands and unit digit. So, product of middle digits is 18 and difference is 7. Only two digits are possible 9 and 2.
As given hundreds digit is more than the tens digit. So hundreds digit is 9 and tens digit is 2
So, no. is 7920.
Q9. Ashok started a business with a certain investment. After few months, Bharat joined him investing half amount of Ashok's initial investment. At the end of the first year, the total profit was divided between them in ratio 3:1. Bharat joined Ashok after
Ans:
Ashok Bharat
Investment 2x (let) x
Amount 12 months y months
Profit Ratio = (Investment x Amount) Ratio
Ashok Bharat
Profit Ratio = 2x. 12 : x.y
3 :1 = 24 : y
On solving this, y = 8 months.
Q10. Out of 13 objects. 4 are indistinguishable and rest are distinct, The number of ways we can choose 4 objects out of 13 objects is ____
Ans:
Distinct objects= 9, Identical(indistinguishable) objects = 4
No. of ways of choosing any no. of items out of identical items =1.
Case 1: All 4 are distinct No. of ways = 9c4
Case 2: 1 identical & 3 objects are distinct No. of ways = 9c3 x 1 {1 way of choosing 1 identical}
Case 3: 2 identical & 2 objects are distinct No. of ways = 9c2 x 1 {1 way of choosing 2 identical}
Case 4: 3 identical & 1 objects are distinct No. of ways = 9c1 x 1 {1 way of choosing 3 identical}
Case 5: 4 identical & 0 objects are distinct No. of ways = 9c0 x 1 {1 way of choosing 4 identical}
So, total no. of ways = 9c4 + 9c3 + 9c2 + 9c1 + 9c0 = 126 + 84 + 36 + 9 + 1 = 256.
Q1. The number of positive integers which divide (1890)⋅(130)⋅(170) and are not divisible by 45 is _____
Ans:
N = (1890).(130).(170) = 23.33.53.7.13.17
Total no. of factors of N = (3+1) (3+1) (3+1) (1+1) (1+1) (1+1) = 512
To find out no. of factors of N which are divisible by 45, find no. of factors of the remaining part of no. after excluding 45
N = 45 x 23.31.52.7.13.17
No. of factors of N divisible by 45 = no. of factors of remaining part (23.31.52.7.13.17)
= (3+1) (1+1) (2+1) (1+1) (1+1) (1+1) = 192
No. of positive integers which divide N (1890)⋅(130)⋅(170) and are not divisible by 45 is = Total no. of factors of N  No. of factors of N divisible by 45 = 512 – 192 = 320
Q2. The sum up to 10 terms of the series 1.3+5.7+9.11+… is
Ans:
= 1*3 + 5*7 + 9*11 …..
=(2  1)(2 + 1) + (6  1)(6 + 1) + (101)(10+1) + …..
= (22  12) + (62  12) + (102  12) + ……
In this series, the common difference is 4.
2,6,10, ……..
The 10th term can be found to be , Sn = a + (n1).d
= [2 + 9*4]
= 38
So the 10th term in the series can be rewritten as (382  12)
= (22  12) + (62  12) + (102  12) + ……+(382  12)
= 22 + 62 + 102 + … + 382 111…..10 times
= 4 [12 +32 +52 …..192 ] – 10 {Sum of squares of n odd terms= n(2n1)(2n+1)/3}
= 4 [1330] 10
=5310.
Q3. There are 5 parallel lines on the plane. On the same plane, there are n other lines which are perpendicular to the 5 parallel lines. If the number of distinct rectangles formed by these lines is 360, what is the value of n ?
Ans:
Let, the number of lines that are perpendicular to given 5 parallel lines is ‘n’.
To make a rectangle we need 2 lines from each group.
Total no. of rectangles = 5C2 x nC2
=> 5C2 xnC2 = 360
=> 10 x n(n−1)/2 = 360
=> n(n1) = 72
=> n = 9.
Q4. There are two taps, T1 and T2, at the bottom of a water tank, either or both of which may be opened to empty the water tank, each at a constant rate. If T1 is opened keeping T2 closed, the water tank (initially full) becomes empty in half an hour. If both T1 and T2 are kept open, the water tank (initially full) becomes empty in 20 minutes. Then, the time (in minutes) it takes for the water tank (initially full) to become empty if T2 is opened while T1 is closed is
Ans: Time Work (LCM of time) Efficiency
T1 30 min. 2
60 unit
T1+T2 20 min. 3
So, efficiency of T2 = (T1+T2 ) – T1 = 3 2 = 1
Time taken by T2 to empty the full tank alone = work/efficiency = 60/1 = 60 min.
Q5. A class consists of 30 students. Each of them has registered for 5 courses. Each course instructor conducts an exam out of 200 marks. The average percentage marks of all 30 students across all courses they have registered for, is 80%. Two of them apply for revaluation in a course. If none of their marks reduce, and the average of all 30 students across all courses becomes 80.02%, the maximum possible increase in marks for either of the 2 students is
Ans:
Total marks in 1 course = 200
Total courses = 5
Total marks of all courses = 1000
Total marks of all students = 30 x 1000 = 30000
The change in the percentage of average marks scored is (80.02  80.00) %
= 0.02%
So the change in the marks is 30 x 1000 x 0.02%
= 3 * 2
= 6 marks.
Q6. Let Sn be sum of the first n terms of an A.P. an. If S5=S9, what is the ratio of a3:a5
a) 9:5
b) 5:9
c) 3:5
d) 5:3
Correct option: a)
Ans:
Let terms of A.P. are, a1, a2, a3, a4, a5, a6, a7, a8, a9
Sum of A.P. = average x no. of terms
=> If no. of terms in A.P. are odd then average = middleterm.
a1, a2, a3, a4, a5 => Average = a3 S5 =a3 x 5
a1, a2, a3, a4, a5, a6, a7, a8, a9 => Average = a5 S9 = a5 x 9
as given, S5 = S9
=> a3 x 5 = a5 x 9
=> a3: a5 = 9 : 5
Q7. It is given that the sequence {xn} satisfies x1 = 0, xn+1 = xn + 1 + 2√(1+xn) for n = 1,2, . . . . . Then x31 is _______
Ans:
xn+1 = xn + 1 + 2√(1+xn)
So x2 = x1 + 1 + 2√(1+x1)
= 0 + 1 + 2√(1+0)
x2 = 3
Similarly, x3 = x2 + 1 + 2√(1+x2)
= 3 + 1 + 2√(1+3)
x3 = 8
We see a pattern here that the nth term in the series is n2  1
And so the 31st term is 312  1
961  1
= 960.
Q8. The unit digit in (743)85(525)37+(987)96 is
a) 9
b) 3
c) 1
d) 5
Correct option: a)
Ans:
For unit digit, only unit digits are required.
= 385  537 + 796
{Cyclicity of 3 is 4, power 85/4 = rem. 1, so power is equivalent to 1}
{Cyclicity of 5 is 1, so all powers of 5 are equivalent to 1}
{Cyclicity of 7 is 4, power 96/4 = rem. 0, so power is equivalent to 4}
= 31 – 51 + 74
= 3 – 5 + 2401 = 3 – 5 +1 = 1 {If it is negative, then add 10 to get unit digit}
= 1 + 10 = 9.
Q9. If the angles A, B, C of a triangle are in arithmetic progression such that sin(2A + B) = 1/2 then sin(B + 2C) is equal to
a.−1/2
b. 1/2
c. −1/√2
d. 3/√2
Correct option: a)
Ans:
The angles A, B and C are in arithmetic progression and so the angles can be written as,
(Bd), B, (B + d), where d is the common difference between the angles.
The sum of the three angles of a triangle is 180 degrees and so,
Bd + B + B + d = 180°
Or
3B = 180°
B = 60°
Now, we also know that sin(2A + B) = 1/2
So, 2A + B = 30° or 150°
But since we already know B = 60o and the angles cannot be negative,
2A + B cannot be 30°
2A + B = 150°
2A + 60o = 150°
Or A = 45°
=> C = 75°
Now that we know all the angles we can find out the value of sin(B + 2C)
B + 2C = 60 + 150 = 210°
sin(210°) = sin(180° + 30°)
= sin(30°) [sin(180° + θ) = sin θ]
= −1/2.
Q10. The highest possible value of the ratio of a fourdigit number and the sum of its four digits is:
a) 1000
b) 277.75
c) 900.1
d) 999
Correct option: a)
Ans:
Fraction = Fourdigit number / the sum of its four digits
For making the fraction largest we need to have a big number in the numerator and a small number in the denominator.
Let’s try 9999 in the numerator so the fraction becomes 9999/36
We can try to make denominator least, which can be 1.
The fraction becomes 1000/1 = 1000
The IPMAT exam generally assesses a candidate's aptitude in three main areas: Quantitative Ability (QA), Verbal Ability (VA), and Logical Reasoning (LR). Here's a detailed overview of the IPMAT syllabus for each section:
Quantitative Ability (QA):
Number System
Percentage
Profit and Loss
Simple and Compound Interest
Ratio and Proportion
Time, Speed and Distance
Time and Work
Algebra
Geometry
Mensuration
Permutation and Combination
Probability
Set Theory
Functions
Trigonometry
Determinants
Vectors
Integration and Differentiation
Verbal Ability (VA):
Reading Comprehension
Grammar
Vocabulary
Parajumbles
Sentence Completion
Error Spotting
Logical Reasoning (LR):
Data Interpretation
Logical Reasoning
Seating Arrangement
Blood Relations
Syllogisms
CodingDecoding
Direction Sense
Clocks and Calendars
Analogies
Series Completion
Statement and Assumptions
Sections  Topics 
Quantitative Ability 

Verbal Ability 

The IPMAT exam paper will have three sections  QA (multiple choice), VA (multiple choice) and QA (short answer). There is negative marking and each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong answer, one mark will be deducted.
200 in IPMAT can be considered an okayish score. TO be on the safer side, you must aim for a score of more than 230 marks.
The difficulty level of IPMAT is moderate. However, you can expect to encounter some difficult questions.
If you strategize your preparation in a proper way and consistently work hard, then you can expect to crack the IPMAT exam in a month.
Although the minimum criteria for class 12th is 60%, you will be in a better position if your 12th marks are good.
For VARC, read daily from diverse sources (newspapers, novels, journals) to improve comprehension and vocabulary. Practice RC passages and verbal ability questions regularly. For DILR (Data Interpretation and Logical Reasoning) and QA (Quantitative Aptitude), solve previous years' papers and take mock tests to identify weak areas. Join a coaching institute or online courses for guidance and stay consistent with your study schedule. Review and analyze your performance in mocks to understand mistakes and improve. Maintain a positive mindset and stay disciplined in your preparation.
Hello! Exams like IPMAT and CUET are very competitive exams, so don't loose hope yet. If you are sure about making a career in Management then there are many other colleges that offer good BBA programs:
Plan about how you want to shape your future and act accordingly!
Hello!
The last last date for applying for IPMAT 2024 is over. The last date to apply for IPMAT for IIM Rohtak was April 10, 2024 and the date of exam is May 18, 2024. The last date for application for IPMAT IIM Indore was closed on April 1, 2024 and the exam is scheduled on May 23.
For more information on the examination, please visit the link given below:
https://bschool.careers360.com/articles/ipmat2024
Hope this answers your query. Thank you.
Hello,
After completing the IPM at IIM Indore, graduates typically find opportunities in top companies across sectors like consulting, finance, marketing, and operations. Some pursue higher studies, opt for entrepreneurship, consider civil services, or aim for corporate leadership roles.
hope this helps,
Thank you
Hello aspirant,
You can evaluate your aptitude and testtaking abilities with the aid of the prior year's IPMAT question paper, which also offers you insightful advice on how to ace the exam. Through the solution of past problems and IPMAT sample papers, you may significantly enhance your accuracy, speed, and time management.
To get 2023 question paper, you can visit our website by clicking on the link given below.
https://bschool.careers360.com/articles/ipmatquestionpapers
Thank you
Hope this information helps you.
A career as Marketing Director is also known as a marketing expert who is responsible for the overall marketing aspect of the company. He or she oversees plans and develops the company's budget. The marketing Director collaborates with the business team to plan and develop the marketing and branding strategies for the company's products or services.
Business development executives strive to achieve maximum output with minimum input. If you are good at understanding and convincing people, the career as a business development executive can be enjoyable for you. Business development executives are candidates who have been transferred to the sales from other departments. In general, Business development executives are promoted to a management position. There are plenty of work openings throughout the profession because every company requires Business development executives.
Content Marketing Specialists are also known as Content Specialists. They are responsible for crafting content, editing and developing it to meet the requirements of digital marketing campaigns. To ensure that the material created is consistent with the overall aims of a digital marketing campaign, content marketing specialists work closely with SEO and digital marketing professionals.
Individuals who opt for a career as a business analyst look at how a company operates. He or she conducts research and analyses data to improve his or her knowledge about the company. This is required so that an individual can suggest the company strategies for improving their operations and processes. Students can visit the Great Lakes Institute of Management, Jamnalal Bajaj Institute of Management Studies to study Business Analytics courses. Business analyst jobs are usually done to help the company make more money, solve existing business problems and achieve its goals.
An SEO Analyst is a web professional who is proficient in the implementation of SEO strategies to target more keywords to improve the reach of the content on search engines. He or she provides support to acquire the goals and success of the client’s campaigns.
Digital marketing is growing, diverse, and is covering a wide variety of career paths. Each job function aids in the development of effective digital marketing strategies and techniques. The aims and objectives of the individuals who opt for a career as a digital marketing executive are similar to those of a marketing professional: to build brand awareness, promote company services or products, and increase conversions. Individuals who opt for a career as Digital Marketing Executives, unlike traditional marketing companies, communicate effectively through suitable technology platforms.
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