ICET MBA 2014 last minute preparation and exam day tips
Integrated Common Entrance Test (ICET) for MBA admission in Universities of Andhra Pradesh is scheduled to be held on Friday, May 23, 2014. Conducted by Kakatiya University, Warangal on behalf of Andhra Pradesh State Council of Higher Education (APSCHE), the exam will be taken by around 25,000 candidates. This article of Careers360 gives you the last minute tips for a smooth exam taking experience.
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First let us have a look at the practical tips for the exam day.
Practical tips for ICET MBA 2014 exam day
Reach the test center before time: The reporting time for the exam is 9.30 am. As the test is going to start from 10 am, the candidates must reach the test center well before the reporting time in order to avoid the last minute rush.
Carry your Hall Ticket: The candidates must carry the ICET MBA 2014 Hall Ticket to the test venue. It will be checked by the test center invigilator before starting the test. The test takers must ensure that all the information on the Hall Ticket is correct and the photograph and signature is clear.
Take the seat assigned to you: The seat has already been assigned on the basis of candidate roll numbers. You must ensure that you take the seat assigned to your roll number and not in any random order.
Check the OMR Sheet and Question Booklet: After receiving the OMR sheet and Question Booklet, enter the Hall Ticket Number, Booklet Number, Booklet Codeon Side-I of the OMR Sheet. Verify the Question Booklet whether it has 200 questions in 3 sections or not. In case there is any damage or misprint in the OMR sheet or the question booklet, immediately bring this to the invigilator’s notice.
Test timing: The timing of the test is 2.5 hours, from 10 am to 12.30 pm. The candidates have to take their respective seats before 10 am and won’t be allowed to leave the center after that and before 12.30 pm. Even if you complete your exam prior to 2.5 hours, you would not be allowed to leave the test hall.
The exam pattern of ICET MBA 2014 includes 200 objective type multiple choice questions divided into 3 sections, Analytical Ability, Mathematical Ability and Communication Ability. The questions will be in English as well as Telugu and the candidates can opt for either of the languages except for the Communication Ability which must be attempted in English only.
Get the detailed exam pattern and structure in the following table.
Number of Questions
Section A: Analytical Ability
Topics: (i) Data Sufficiency
(ii) Problem Solving
Section B: Mathematical Ability
Topics: (i) Arithmetical Ability
(ii) Algebraical and Geometrical Ability
(iii) Statistical Ability
Section C: Communication Ability
Topics: (i) Vocabulary
(ii) Business and Computer Technology
(iii) Functional Grammar
(iv) Reading Comprehension
Each correct answer carries 1 mark and there is no negative marking scheme in the paper. The overall difficulty level of the exam is moderate to tough. Since there is mo negative marking, you must ensure that you attempt maximum number of questions so that you can get fulfill the cut off.
Now we will share the in depth analysis of the last year’s exam so that you know what to expect in the paper.
There were 75 questions in this section. The difficulty level ranged from moderate to tough. The broad topics were Data Sufficiency, Data Analysis and Reasoning.
In the Data Sufficiency part, the weightage in the Plane Geometry questions were higher compared to last year. On the other hand, questions on Numbers had decreased. There was 1 Reasoning question from the topic of Calendars. The other topics were:
Profit & Loss
The difficulty level of this part was easy to moderate.
In the Data Analysis part, there were 2 Data Interpretation sets and a Venn Diagram set. The 2 sets were based on Pie Chart and Table. The difficulty levels were easy and tough respectively. The overall difficulty level was moderate.
The Reasoning area had 41 questions on Problem Solving, Coding Decoding and Date, Time and Arrangement. The overall difficulty level was easy to moderate. According to the analysis by T.I.M.E., instead of 15 questions, there were 20 questions on series and analogies. There were 9 questions on number series and only one on letter series. As regards the questions on analogies, three were based on mathematical concepts and three were verbal analogies. The difficulty level of these questions was slightly higher when compared to that of last year. Due to the increase in the number of questions on series and analogies, the number of odd man out questions was reduced to 5. Among the odd man out questions two were based on mathematical concepts. Hence among these 25 questions, about 20% of the questions require knowledge of application of mathematical concepts.
The questions on 'Coding – Decoding' have been split into two parts - One set of 5 questions and another set of 5 individual questions. The set of 5 questions was easy. While 2 among the 5 individual questions were of moderate difficulty level.
The questions on Date, Time and Arrangement were the toughest as compared to the other questions of this section.
The difficulty level of this section was tough. It was also time consuming owing to the calculation intensive questions. “While there were questions which could be solved by direct substitution using the formulae, there were quite a few questions which were purely based on the application of the concepts rather that direct substitution in the formulae types,” said the T.I.M.E. analysis. The topics in this section from Arithmetic were as follows:
Laws of indices
Ratio & Proportion
Profit & Loss; Partnership
Time & Work
Time & Distance
Topics from Algebra, Geometry and Statistics included the following:
Binomial, Remainder Theorem
This section was on the tougher side, though the pattern and question types were on the expected lines. The main areas in this section were Vocabulary, Grammar and Reading Comprehension.
The Vocabulary area had 10 questions out of which 6 were on Synonyms and 4 were on Fill in the blanks. The difficulty level of this part was quite tough.
The Grammar questions were 15 in number. Fill in the blanks topic had 8 questions on verb, phrasal verb and preposition out of which 3 were very tough. “There were 7 conversation and statement questions most of which were straightforward and easy to deal with. However, some had uncommon idioms in them making them a bit difficult to those who are not well-prepared,” mentioned T.I.M.E.
There were 3 Reading Comprehension passages, out of which 2 were very easy and 1 was very tough.
The result of the exam will be declared on Monday, June 9, 2014.
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Questions related to APICET
i got 18000 in ap icet ..can i choose 3 colleges sri venkateswara university andhra university aacharya nagarjuna university by any chance i get seat in those 3 colleges for mca group
see getting admission in particular college depends as per your rank and branch and your caste and as per reservation and previous years cutoff ranks you need to score at least rank below 6k to get in your mentioned colleges and i request you to mention your caste to help in better way and as per your rank you have very bad chances to get but still try your luck and for more information go to below links
i hope this information is helpful
ALL THE BEST
when is apicet counciling registration start
Hope you are doing well. As per your query APICET 2020 counciling registration date is yet to be announced. Tentatively the dates will be between last week of October to first week of November. You can tally with their official website for the release of dates. Or you can click on the link below for more information and updates on the dates. Hope you find this helpful. Thank you.
when will APICET councelling will start
APICET counselling dates has not yet been declared . But the registration for the counselling probably starts at the end of the October and seats would be alloted by early December.
Hi, As we have 2nd and 3rd counselling in Under graduation process..Do we have the 2nd and 3rd counselling in APICET process too...!!?
Yes . Friend you will have 2 and 3 counselling in APICET .